CDS (II) 2016, General Knowledge question paper

1. A.
   Nitrogen
2. B.
   Hydrogen
3. C.
   Methane
4. D.
   Oxygen

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1. A.
   Amphibian
2. B.
   Reptile
3. C.
   Mammal
4. D.
   Insect

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1. A.
   Hydropower plants
2. B.
   Nuclear power plants
3. C.
   Thermal power plants
4. D.
   Wind energy

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1. A.
   mast cells
2. B.
   platelets
3. C.
   erythrocytes
4. D.
   lymphocytes

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1. A.
   Chlorofluorocarbon
2. B.
   Fly ash
3. C.
   Carbon monoxide
4. D.
   Sulphur dioxide

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   2 only
3. C.
   2 and 3 only
4. D.
   1, 2 and 3

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1. A.
   Coal
2. B.
   Diamond
3. C.
   Graphite
4. D.
   Graphene

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1. A.
   sulphuric acid
2. B.
   bleaching powder
3. C.
   caustic soda
4. D.
   nitric acid

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1. A.
   increase the pH of the soil
2. B.
   lower the pH of the soil
3. C.
   increase the phosphorus content of the soil
4. D.
   increase the nitrogen content of the soil

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1. A.
   Tooth caries
2. B.
   Mottling of tooth
3. C.
   Bending of bones
4. D.
   Stiffening of joints

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1. A.
   Nitrogen
2. B.
   Phosphate only
3. C.
   Potassium only
4. D.
   Phosphate and potassium

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1. A.
   Sodium
2. B.
   Potassium
3. C.
   Caesium
4. D.
   Lithium

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1. A.
   Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
2. B.
   Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab
3. C.
   Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam
4. D.
   Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3
3. C.
   2 and 3 only
4. D.
   1 and 4

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   2 and 4 only
3. C.
   1, 2 and 3
4. D.
   2, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   length only
2. B.
   material only
3. C.
   length and its diameter
4. D.
   thickness, its diameter and its material

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1. A.
   the mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its atomic number does not change
2. B.
   the mass number of the nucleus does not change whereas its atomic number changes
3. C.
   both the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus change
4. D.
   neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes

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1. A.
   all the three regions (the emitter, the base and the collector) have equal concentrations of impurity
2. B.
   the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
3. C.
   the collector has the least concentration of impurity
4. D.
   the base has the least concentration of impurity

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1. A.
   1 pascal
2. B.
   1 atmosphere
3. C.
   1 bar
4. D.
   1 poise

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1. A.
   Linear momentum
2. B.
   Angular momentum
3. C.
   Force
4. D.
   Potential energy

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1. A.
   The response of the ear to sound of increasing intensity is approximately logarithmic.
2. B.
   The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound.
3. C.
   When two or more waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave.
4. D.
   Longitudinal waves can travel in all media—solids, liquids and gases.

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1. A.
   GH
2. B.
   TSH
3. C.
   Insulin
4. D.
   Cortisol

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   2 and 3 only
3. C.
   1, 2 and 4
4. D.
   2, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3
3. C.
   2 and 3 only
4. D.
   1, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   high partial pressure of oxygen
2. B.
   low partial pressure of oxygen
3. C.
   low level of haemoglobin
4. D.
   high partial pressure of carbon dioxide

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1. A.
   A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
2. B.
   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3. C.
   A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4. D.
   A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

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1. A.
   The oxidation number for hydrogen is always zero.
2. B.
   The oxidation number for hydrogen is always $+1$.
3. C.
   The oxidation number for hydrogen is always $-1$.
4. D.
   Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.

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1. A.
   absolute electrode potential is not zero
2. B.
   absolute electrode potential is zero
3. C.
   both absolute and standard electrode potential values are zero
4. D.
   electrode potential is zero only at $25\ ^\circ\text{C}$

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1. A.
   C > O > H > N
2. B.
   O > C > H > N
3. C.
   N > C > H > O
4. D.
   N > C > O > H

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   2 and 3
3. C.
   2 and 4 only
4. D.
   1, 2 and 4

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1. A.
   Puducherry
2. B.
   Chandigarh
3. C.
   Goa
4. D.
   Delhi

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1. A.
   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2. B.
   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. C.
   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4. D.
   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3 only
3. C.
   3 and 4 only
4. D.
   1, 2, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2. B.
   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3. C.
   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4. D.
   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

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1. A.
   Son
2. B.
   Mahananda
3. C.
   Teesta
4. D.
   Sharada

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1. A.
   Superior and Michigan
2. B.
   Superior and Huron
3. C.
   Huron and Ontario
4. D.
   Huron and Erie

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1. A.
   rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
2. B.
   denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
3. C.
   rarer to denser medium and it occurs with loss of intensity
4. D.
   denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of intensity

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1. A.
   10 MeV
2. B.
   100 MeV
3. C.
   1 MeV
4. D.
   0.1 MeV

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1. A.
   diamagnetic property
2. B.
   paramagnetic property
3. C.
   ferromagnetic property
4. D.
   electromagnetic property

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1. A.
   of variable refractive index
2. B.
   made up of slabs of different refractive indices
3. C.
   homogeneous and transparent
4. D.
   inhomogeneous and transparent

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1. A.
   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2. B.
   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. C.
   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4. D.
   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

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1. A.
   A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
2. B.
   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3. C.
   A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
4. D.
   A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

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1. A.
   Great Fisher Bank
2. B.
   Grand Banks
3. C.
   Dogger Bank
4. D.
   Reed Bank

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1. A.
   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
2. B.
   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. C.
   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4. D.
   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   3 only
3. C.
   2 and 3 only
4. D.
   1, 2 and 3

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1. A.
   Position of the Sun, Earth and Moon in a straight line of $180^\circ$ angle is known as syzygy.
2. B.
   Syzygy conjunction causes solar eclipse.
3. C.
   Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse.
4. D.
   Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.

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1. A.
   Wind gap
2. B.
   Zeugen
3. C.
   Dreikanter
4. D.
   Demoiselle

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1. A.
   Guindy National Park is known for tiger reserve.
2. B.
   Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation.
3. C.
   Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve.
4. D.
   Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary.

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1. A.
   Sal is found in moist deciduous forests.
2. B.
   Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu.
3. C.
   Deodar is a coniferous species of tree.
4. D.
   Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya.

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1. A.
   Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata.
2. B.
   Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur.
3. C.
   Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located at Allahabad.
4. D.
   Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi.

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1. A.
   Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. B.
   Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. C.
   Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. D.
   Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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1. A.
   Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. B.
   Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. C.
   Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. D.
   Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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1. A.
   Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. B.
   Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. C.
   Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. D.
   Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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1. A.
   T-55
2. B.
   T-155
3. C.
   T-72
4. D.
   T-90

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1. A.
   Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
2. B.
   Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera
3. C.
   Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma
4. D.
   Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   1 and 3 only
3. C.
   1, 2 and 3 only
4. D.
   1, 2, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   2, 3 and 4
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3
3. C.
   1 and 3 only
4. D.
   1 and 2 only

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3
3. C.
   2 and 4
4. D.
   1 and 3 only

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1. A.
   Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate.
2. B.
   Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromate from the list of permissible food additives.
3. C.
   The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation.
4. D.
   Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.

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1. A.
   England and Scotland
2. B.
   England and Wales
3. C.
   Scotland and Northern Ireland
4. D.
   Wales and Northern Ireland

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1. A.
   In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India's first reusable space vehicle.
2. B.
   The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
3. C.
   The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing.
4. D.
   The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.

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1. A.
   BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation.
2. B.
   The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
3. C.
   Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
4. D.
   Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.

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1. A.
   The Kitab-ul-Hind
2. B.
   Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
3. C.
   Sculptures from Mandor
4. D.
   The Ain-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   2 and 3 only
3. C.
   1 and 2 only
4. D.
   1, 2 and 3

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1. A.
   A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
2. B.
   A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
3. C.
   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4. D.
   A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

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1. A.
   Harihara
2. B.
   Bhairava
3. C.
   Rudra
4. D.
   Tripurantaka

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1. A.
   1, 2 and 3 only
2. B.
   1, 2, 3 and 4
3. C.
   1 and 3 only
4. D.
   2 and 4 only

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1. A.
   1, 2 and 3
2. B.
   2, 3 and 4
3. C.
   1, 3 and 4
4. D.
   1 and 4 only

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1. A.
   1, 2 and 3
2. B.
   2, 3 and 4
3. C.
   1 and 2 only
4. D.
   1 and 4

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1. A.
   A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.
2. B.
   The accused must have violated an existing law.
3. C.
   An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again.
4. D.
   The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.

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1. A.
   journalist
2. B.
   billiards player
3. C.
   dramatist
4. D.
   quiz master

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1. A.
   Albert Einstein
2. B.
   Stephen Hawking
3. C.
   C. V. Raman
4. D.
   Abdus Salam

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1. A.
   Indian Army
2. B.
   US Army
3. C.
   Indian Ordnance Factory Board
4. D.
   Indian and US Army jointly

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1. A.
   Jamie Murray
2. B.
   Bruno Soares
3. C.
   Novak Djokovic
4. D.
   Andy Murray

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1. A.
   1 and 2 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 3
3. C.
   3 and 4
4. D.
   4 only

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   1 and 3
3. C.
   2 and 4 only
4. D.
   1, 2 and 4

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1. A.
   1 and 4 only
2. B.
   2 only
3. C.
   1, 2 and 4
4. D.
   2 and 3

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1. A.
   A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule
2. B.
   A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule
3. C.
   A soldier in the Maratha army
4. D.
   A village headman in the Mughal period

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1. A.
   producing a new type of painting
2. B.
   irrigating fields for rice cultivation
3. C.
   producing strong threads of yarn
4. D.
   the faster movement of steamships

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1. A.
   clothing, food, housing and transportation
2. B.
   education, food, housing and health care
3. C.
   food, housing, education and employment
4. D.
   employment, housing, education and health care

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1. A.
   Osaka
2. B.
   Kyoto
3. C.
   Samurai
4. D.
   Edo

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1. A.
   story of Rama
2. B.
   Jaina elements in the storyline
3. C.
   culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists
4. D.
   cult of Shakti worship

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1. A.
   marriage by purchase
2. B.
   marriage by capture
3. C.
   marriage by giving dowry
4. D.
   marriage by seduction

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1. A.
   Colombia
2. B.
   Argentina
3. C.
   Ecuador
4. D.
   Peru

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1. A.
   Cheyenne Mountain Zoo
2. B.
   Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo
3. C.
   Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok
4. D.
   Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park

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1. A.
   The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal and voluntary partnership initially formed among G-7 countries.
2. B.
   Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
3. C.
   China applied to join the Regime but members did not offer the membership.
4. D.
   No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.

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1. A.
   20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve
2. B.
   100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve
3. C.
   20 aircrafts with no reserve
4. D.
   25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve

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1. A.
   Singapore
2. B.
   Manila
3. C.
   Bangkok
4. D.
   Hong Kong

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1. A.
   The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day's business
2. B.
   The ratio of bank's total deposits and total liabilities
3. C.
   A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks
4. D.
   The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market

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1. A.
   1 and 2
2. B.
   2 and 3
3. C.
   1 and 3 only
4. D.
   1, 3 and 4

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1. A.
   purely temporary in nature
2. B.
   permanent in nature
3. C.
   imaginary situations
4. D.
   normal situations

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1. A.
   going for more fixed capital per worker
2. B.
   emphasis on social overhead capital
3. C.
   constant capital-output ratio
4. D.
   increasing capital-output ratio

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1. A.
   It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
2. B.
   It is a part of fundamental rights.
3. C.
   The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
4. D.
   Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.

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1. A.
   Habeas Corpus
2. B.
   Mandamus
3. C.
   Certiorari
4. D.
   Quo Warranto

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1. A.
   To respect the National Flag
2. B.
   To defend the country
3. C.
   To provide education to one's child
4. D.
   To promote village and cottage industries

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1. A.
   1, 2 and 3
2. B.
   2, 3 and 4
3. C.
   1, 3 and 4
4. D.
   1 and 2 only

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1. A.
   This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence.
2. B.
   Only women can make a complaint under this legislation.
3. C.
   Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
4. D.
   The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships.

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1. A.
   Creation of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in the Union Budget, 2015-16.
2. B.
   NIIF is a fund for enhancing infrastructure facility in the country.
3. C.
   NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the names of the same organization.
4. D.
   NIIF can have more than one alternative investment fund,

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1. A.
   It is the first integrated theatre command in India.
2. B.
   Its headquarters is at Port Blair.
3. C.
   It is commanded by a three-star officer.
4. D.
   It was set up by the British during the Second World War.

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1. A.
   The Chief of Army Staff
2. B.
   The Chief of Naval Staff
3. C.
   The Chief of Air Staff
4. D.
   The member who has been the longest on the Committee

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1. A.
   an infantry regiment of the Indian Army
2. B.
   a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles
3. C.
   the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
4. D.
   a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs

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1. A.
   Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized Infantry Regiment.
2. B.
   Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers.
3. C.
   Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps.
4. D.
   Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.

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1. A.
   South Western Command
2. B.
   North Eastern Command
3. C.
   Central Command
4. D.
   Army Training Command (ARTRAC)

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1. A.
   The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished.
2. B.
   The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal.
3. C.
   All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the Indian Navy.
4. D.
   The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General.

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1. A.
   Akash
2. B.
   Trishul
3. C.
   Tatra
4. D.
   Astra

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1. A.
   The share of manufacturing sector has declined.
2. B.
   The share of services sector has increased sharply.
3. C.
   The share of agriculture has remained static.
4. D.
   The share of services sector has declined.

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1. A.
   Currency + Reserves with the RBI
2. B.
   Net GDR
3. C.
   Net Foreign Direct Investment
4. D.
   Foreign Portfolio Investment

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1. A.
   CRISIL
2. B.
   CARE
3. C.
   ICRA
4. D.
   All of the above

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1. A.
   C. Rangarajan
2. B.
   Vijay Kelkar
3. C.
   Y. V. Reddy
4. D.
   Rakesh Mohan

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1. A.
   USA, Canada and Mexico
2. B.
   USA, Canada and India
3. C.
   USA, Canada and Japan
4. D.
   USA, UK and India

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1. A.
   1 and 3 only
2. B.
   1 and 2 only
3. C.
   1, 2 and 3
4. D.
   2 and 3 only

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1. A.
   The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
2. B.
   The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India.
3. C.
   The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order.
4. D.
   The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.

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1. A.
   Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
2. B.
   Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
3. C.
   Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
4. D.
   Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh

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1. A.
   It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
2. B.
   The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
3. C.
   The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.
4. D.
   The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.

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1. A.
   1 only
2. B.
   2 only
3. C.
   Both 1 and 2
4. D.
   Neither 1 nor 2

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1. A.
   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2. B.
   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. C.
   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
4. D.
   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

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1. A.
   3 only
2. B.
   1, 2 and 4
3. C.
   1, 2 and 3
4. D.
   4 only

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1. A.
   The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes.
2. B.
   All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
3. C.
   The Commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court.
4. D.
   The Commission has the power to regulate its own procedures.

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1. A.
   guaranteed to everybody
2. B.
   to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
3. C.
   to equality before law
4. D.
   to life and personal liberty

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1. A.
   By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh
2. B.
   By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
3. C.
   By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament
4. D.
   By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by sixteen State Legislatures

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