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MHT-CET 2026 (14 May Shift II), Paper II, Physics & Chemistry question paper

100 questions · 100 marks · 90 minutes · +1 per correct answer, no negative marking

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Physics

50 questions

  1. 1
    The resultant R⃗\vec{R} of P⃗\vec{P} and Q⃗\vec{Q} is perpendicular to P⃗\vec{P}. Also ∣P⃗∣=∣R⃗∣|\vec{P}| = |\vec{R}|. The angle between P⃗\vec{P} and Q⃗\vec{Q} is (tan⁡45∘=1)(\tan 45^\circ = 1)

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  2. 2
    If the initial velocity of projection be doubled, keeping the angle of projection same, the maximum height reached by it will

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  3. 3
    A particle of mass m is projected with velocity V making an angle of 45∘45^\circ with the horizontal. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about an axis of projection when the particle is at maximum height h is (gg = acceleration due to gravity) (sin⁡45∘=12)(cos⁡45∘=12)\left(\sin 45^\circ = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\left(\cos 45^\circ = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)

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  4. 4
    A stone of mass m is tied to a string and is moved in a vertical circle of radius r making 'n' r.p.m. The total tension in the string when the stone is at the lowest point is (gg = acceleration due to gravity)

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  5. 5
    Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface. The blocks B and C are at rest. Block A is approaching towards B with a speed 1010 m/s. The coefficient of restitution for all collisions is 0.50.5. The speed of block C just after collision is

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  6. 6
    A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular velocity ω\omega. If it cools so that its radius reduces to (1n)th\left(\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^{th} of its original value, its angular velocity becomes

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  7. 7
    The magnitude of gravitational field at distances r1r_1 and r2r_2 from the centre of a uniform sphere of radius R and mass M are I1I_1 and I2I_2 respectively. Given that r1>Rr_1 > R and r2<Rr_2 < R, the ratio I1I2\dfrac{I_1}{I_2} is

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  8. 8
    In air, a charged soap bubble of radius R breaks in to 27 small soap bubbles of equal radii r. Then the ratio of mechanical force acting per unit area of big soap bubble to that of a small soap bubble is

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  9. 9
    A frame made up of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 25% the energy of the soap film will be changed by

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  10. 10
    The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water is four times that of another drop. Then, their respective mass ratio is

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  11. 11
    A metal rod (A) of length 2020 cm expands by 0.0750.075 cm when its temperature changes from 0∘C0^\circ\mathrm{C} to 100∘C100^\circ\mathrm{C}. Another metal rod (B) of different metal of same length expands by 0.0450.045 cm for same temperature change. A third rod of same length is composed of 2 parts, one of metal A and another of metal B. For same temperature change, this rod expands by 0.0600.060 cm. The portion made of metal A has the length

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  12. 12
    The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength λ0\lambda_0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3λ04\dfrac{3\lambda_0}{4}, the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

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  13. 13
    Arrange the correct order of P-V diagrams in thermodynamics for an isothermal process, isobaric process, isochoric process and adiabatic process

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  14. 14
    If the ratio of molar heat capacities CpCv=γ\dfrac{C_p}{C_v} = \gamma then the ratio of ΔQΔU\dfrac{\Delta Q}{\Delta U} and ΔQΔW\dfrac{\Delta Q}{\Delta W} in an isobaric process is

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  15. 15
    Heat required to raise the temperature of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant pressure from 25∘C25^\circ\mathrm{C} to 35∘C35^\circ\mathrm{C} is 310 J. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas through the same range at constant volume is (R=8.3(R = 8.3 J/mol K))

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  16. 16
    At constant temperature, the volume of a gas is to be decreased by 4%. The pressure must be increased by

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  17. 17
    The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T=2πlgT = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}} where ll is about 100100 cm and has 11 mm accuracy. The period is about 22 s. The time of 100100 oscillations is measured by a stopwatch of least count 0.10.1 s. The percentage error in 'gg' is (gravitation acceleration)

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  18. 18
    A particle starts oscillating simple harmonically from its equilibrium position with time period T. The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of the particle at time t=T/12t = T/12 is

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  19. 19
    The maximum velocity and maximum acceleration of a particle performing a linear S.H.M. are α\alpha and β\beta respectively. Then, path length of the particle is

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  20. 20
    A particle executes S.H.M. with time period 1616 s. At time t=2t = 2 s, the particle crosses the mean position while at t=4t = 4 s, velocity is 44 m/s. The amplitude of motion (in m) is (sin⁡45∘=12)\left(\sin 45^\circ = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)

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  21. 21
    The equation of a plane progressive wave is Y=0.025sin⁡(100t+0.25x)Y = 0.025\sin(100t + 0.25x). The frequency of this wave would be

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  22. 22
    Two closed organ pipes A and B have the same length and A is wider than B. They resonate in the fundamental mode at frequencies nAn_A and nBn_B respectively, then

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  23. 23
    The equation of a stationary wave along a stretched string is y=5sin⁡πx3cos⁡40πty = 5\sin\dfrac{\pi x}{3}\cos 40\pi t where xx and yy are in cm and tt in second. The separation between two adjacent nodes is

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  24. 24
    A uniform rope of mass 0.10.1 kg and length 2.52.5 m hangs from ceiling. The speed of transverse wave in the rope at upper end and at a point 0.50.5 m distance from lower end will be (g=10 m/s2)(g = 10\ \mathrm{m/s^2})

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  25. 25
    Two particles of charges q1=8qq_1 = 8q and q2=−2qq_2 = -2q are placed as shown in figure. At what point away from q2q_2 on x-axis can a proton be placed placed so that it is in equilibrium?

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  26. 26
    The electric field intensity at a point near and outside the surface of a charged conductor of any shape is E1E_1. The electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged infinite thin plane sheet having the same surface charge density is E2E_2. The relation between E1E_1 and E2E_2 is

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  27. 27
    An infinite line charge produces a field of 9×1089 \times 10^8 N/C at a distance of 22 cm. The linear charge density is (14πε0=9×109 SI unit)\left(\dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9\ \text{SI unit}\right)

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  28. 28
    A capacitor of 20 μF20\ \mu\mathrm{F} is charged up to 500500 V is connected in parallel with another capacitor of 10 μF10\ \mu\mathrm{F} which is charged up to 200200 V. Then, the common potential will be

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  29. 29
    A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω50\ \Omega is connected to a battery of 33V along with a resistance of 2950 Ω2950\ \Omega in series. A full scale deflection of 3030 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. To reduce this deflection to 2020 divisions, the resistance in series should be

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  30. 30
    In balanced meter bridge, the resistance of bridge wire is 0.1 Ω/cm0.1\ \Omega/\mathrm{cm}. Unknown resistance XX is connected in the left gap and 6 Ω6\ \Omega in right gap. Null point divides the wire in the ratio 2:32 : 3. The current drawn from the battery of 55V having negligible resistance is

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  31. 31
    A particle carrying a charge equal to 100100 times the charge of an electron is rotating one rotation per second in a circular path of radius 0.80.8 m. The value of magnetic field produced at the centre will be (μ0\mu_0 = permeability of free space)

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  32. 32
    Two parallel long wires carry currents i1i_1 and i2i_2 with i1>i2i_1 > i_2. When the currents are in the same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 10 μT10\ \mu\mathrm{T}. If the direction of i2i_2 is reversed then the field becomes 30 μT30\ \mu\mathrm{T}. The ratio i1i2\dfrac{i_1}{i_2}

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  33. 33
    A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 11 cm has a magnetic dipole moment 20×10−620 \times 10^{-6} J/T when a magnetic intensity 60×10360 \times 10^3 A/m is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is

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  34. 34
    The self induced e.m.f. of a coil is 2525 V. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate from 1010 A to 2525 A in 11 s, the change in the energy of the inductance is

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  35. 35
    A square of side L metre lies in the XY plane in a region, where the magnetic field is B⃗=B0(2i^+3j^+4k^)\vec{B} = B_0(2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}), where B0B_0 constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the square is

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  36. 36
    An arc lamp requires a direct current of 1010 A at 9090 V to function. If it is connected to 220220 V (rms), 5050 Hz a.c. supply, the series inductor needed for it to work is nearly

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  37. 37
    An alternating voltage is E=100sin⁡(ωt+π6)E = 100\sin\left(\omega t + \dfrac{\pi}{6}\right) V. The voltage will be maximum for the first time when t is (sin⁡π2=1)\left(\sin\dfrac{\pi}{2} = 1\right) (T = Periodic time)

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  38. 38
    A 10 μF10\ \mu\mathrm{F} capacitor is charged to 2525 V of potential. The battery is then disconnected and a pure 100100 mH coil is connected across the capacitor so that L-C oscillations are set up. The maximum current in the coil is

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  39. 39
    A current of 55 A is flowing at 220220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary coil is 22002200 V and 50%50\% of power is lost, then the current in secondary will be

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  40. 40
    An equilateral prism deviates a ray through 45∘45^\circ for the two angles of incidence differing by 20∘20^\circ. One of the angle of incidence is

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  41. 41
    If Young's double slit experiment is performed in water

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  42. 42
    The distance of a point on the screen from two slits in biprism experiment is 1.8×10−51.8 \times 10^{-5} m and 1.23×10−51.23 \times 10^{-5} m. If wavelength of light used is 6000 A˚6000\ \mathrm{\mathring{A}} the fringe number formed at that point is

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  43. 43
    Interference fringes are produced on a screen by using two light sources of intensities I and 9I. The phase difference between the beams is π2\dfrac{\pi}{2}, at point P and π\pi at point Q on the screen. The difference between the resultant intensities at points P and Q is (cos⁡π2=0,cos⁡π=−1)\left(\cos\dfrac{\pi}{2} = 0, \cos\pi = -1\right)

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  44. 44
    When photons of energy hνh\nu fall on a metal plate of work function W0W_0, photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons will be

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  45. 45
    Energy of the incident photon on the metal surface is 3W3W and then 5W5W, where WW is the work function of that metal. The ratio of velocities of emitted photoelectrons is

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  46. 46
    If λ1\lambda_1 and λ2\lambda_2 are the wavelengths of the first members of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively then λ1:λ2\lambda_1 : \lambda_2 is

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  47. 47
    In hydrogen atom, an electron jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit so that radius of the lower orbit is (14)th\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^{th} of radius of higher orbit. If speed of electron in higher orbit was V, then speed in lower orbit is

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  48. 48
    In an intrinsic semiconductor, at any ordinary temperature, the correct relation between the number of electrons per unit volume (ne)(n_e) and number of holes per unit volume (nh)(n_h) is

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  49. 49
    The output Y, when all the three inputs are first high and then low, will respectively be

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  50. 50
    The current gain in the common emitter mode of a transistor is 1010. The input impedance is 20 kΩ20\ k\Omega and load resistance 100 kΩ100\ k\Omega. The power gain is

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Chemistry

50 questions

  1. 51
    An element has two isotopes of mass numbers 6565 and 6767 with abundances of 25%25\% and 75%75\% respectively. Then the average atomic mass of the element is

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  2. 52
    What is the wavelength of the photon emitted during the transition from the orbit of n=4n = 4 to that of n=2n = 2 in hydrogen atom?

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  3. 53
    Find the number of sp2sp^2 hybridized carbon atoms in cycloheptatriene?

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  4. 54
    Identify the set of molecules which have similar dipole moment from the following.

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  5. 55
    Which of the following gases has the highest density under normal conditions?

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  6. 56
    Calculate the constant external pressure required to compress 44 moles of an ideal gas, from volume 30 dm330\ \mathrm{dm^3} to 20 dm320\ \mathrm{dm^3} when the work obtained is 40534053 J.

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  7. 57
    Calculate the heat of formation of SO2\mathrm{SO_2} from the following data, i) S+3/2 O2(g)→SO3(g)\mathrm{S} + 3/2\,\mathrm{O_2}(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{SO_3}(g), ΔH=−5Y\Delta H = -5Y kJ ii) SO2+1/2 O2(g)→SO3(g)\mathrm{SO_2} + 1/2\,\mathrm{O_2}(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{SO_3}(g), ΔH=−3Y\Delta H = -3Y kJ

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  8. 58
    CH4(g)→C(g)+4H(g)\mathrm{CH_{4(g)} \rightarrow C_{(g)} + 4H_{(g)}}, ΔH=1660\Delta H = 1660 kJ/mol. What type of enthalpy does the reaction represent?

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  9. 59
    Calculate the dissociation constant of weak monobasic acid if it dissociates to 0.04%0.04\% in 0.20.2 M solution.

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  10. 60
    Calculate the amount of acetic acid in one liter of its solution if the degree of dissociation is 1.3%1.3\% [Ka=1.8×10−5][K_a = 1.8 \times 10^{-5}]

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  11. 61
    Which of the following salts is made by weak acid and weak base?

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  12. 62
    What is the oxidation number of S in H2SO3\mathrm{H_2SO_3} and H2S2O7\mathrm{H_2S_2O_7} respectively?

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  13. 63
    Which of the following compounds is used to prepare H2O2\mathrm{H_2O_2} by Merck process using aqueous H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4}?

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  14. 64
    What is the IUPAC name of o-tolualdehyde?

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  15. 65
    Which of the following species exhibits +I+I effect?

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  16. 66
    Which of the following statements is correct regarding aromatic ethers?

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  17. 67
    Which of the following reagents is used to carry out aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction with iodine?

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  18. 68
    The compound is formed of two different elements A and B. Atoms of B forms hcp structure and atoms of A occupy 2/3rd of octahedral voids. Calculate the formula of compound.

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  19. 69
    Find the type of unit cell if the density is 6.25 g/cm36.25\ \mathrm{g/cm^3}, edge length 400400 pm and the atomic mass of an element is 120120 g/mol. (Consider NA=6.02×1023N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23})

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  20. 70
    Identify anisotropic substance from following.

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  21. 71
    The osmotic pressure of a particular solution is 88 atm at 298298 K. What will be the osmotic pressure under similar conditions at 313313 K?

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  22. 72
    A solution of 10.010.0 g of a nonvolatile, nonelectrolyte solute dissolved in 0.20.2 kg of benzene boils at 81.2∘C81.2^\circ\mathrm{C}. Calculate molar mass of the compound. (ebullioscopic constant for benzene =2.53= 2.53 K kg mol−1\mathrm{mol^{-1}} and boiling point of pure benzene =80.1∘C= 80.1^\circ\mathrm{C})

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  23. 73
    What type of solution is gasoline?

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  24. 74
    Two solutions have concentration ratio 0.40.4 and conductivity ratio 0.20.2. What is the ratio of their molar conductivities?

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  25. 75
    Calculate the molar conductivity of 0.0010.001 M AgNO3\mathrm{AgNO_3} solution if the conductivity of 0.0010.001 M AgNO3\mathrm{AgNO_3} solution is 1.3×10−4 ohm−1 cm−11.3 \times 10^{-4}\ \mathrm{ohm^{-1}\,cm^{-1}}.

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  26. 76
    What is the number of moles of electrons that are required for the reduction of 22 moles of Al+3\mathrm{Al^{+3}} to Al?

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  27. 77
    A first order reaction has a half life period 69.369.3 seconds. Calculate the rate of reaction if the concentration of reactant is 0.10.1 M.

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  28. 78
    What is the slope for a first-order reaction plot of log⁡[A]0/[A]t\log[A]_0/[A]_t vs time (t)(t)?

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  29. 79
    Which of the following is the correct relation for half life period of a zero order reaction?

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  30. 80
    What type of colloid the cloud is?

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  31. 81
    Which of the following catalysts is used for Haber's process of manufacture of ammonia?

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  32. 82
    Identify the correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens from following.

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  33. 83
    Which of the following inert gases is used in supersonic wind tunnels?

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  34. 84
    Calculate the spin-only magnetic moment of divalent cation of a transition metal with atomic number 2525.

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  35. 85
    Calculate magnetic moment for Fe3+\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}?

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  36. 86
    Identify a complex having four unpaired electrons in it

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  37. 87
    Identify the major product obtained when 2-Bromobutane is heated with alcoholic KOH.

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  38. 88
    Identify the product obtained in following reaction. C3H7−O−C3H7+HIexcess→HotΔX+Y\mathrm{C_3H_7 - O - C_3H_7} + \underset{\text{excess}}{\mathrm{HI}} \xrightarrow[\text{Hot}]{\Delta} X + Y

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  39. 89
    Identify 'X' and 'Y' in the following reaction. C3H7−O−C3H7+HI (excess)→HotΔX+YC_3H_7 - O - C_3H_7 + HI\ (\text{excess}) \xrightarrow[\text{Hot}]{\Delta} X + Y

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  40. 90
    Which of the following compounds, when reacted with ketones forms oxime?

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  41. 91
    Which of the following compounds undergoes Cannizzaro's reaction?

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  42. 92
    Which of the following compounds is obtained in the saponification process?

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  43. 93
    Which of the following compounds is obtained when N,N,N-triethylpropanammonium hydroxide is heated?

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  44. 94
    Identify secondary amines from the following list? a) N,N-Dimethylethanamine b) N-Methylmethanamine c) 4-Bromobenzenamine d) N-Methylbenzenamine e) N-Methylethanamine

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  45. 95
    Which of the following nitrogen bases pairs with guanine of one strand of DNA?

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  46. 96
    Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of animals?

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  47. 97
    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

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  48. 98
    Identify the monomeric unit present in Orlon.

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  49. 99
    Which of the following polymers is NOT semisynthetic?

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  50. 100
    Which of the following compounds has antiseptic property?

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