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MPSC State Services Prelims 2018, GS Paper I, 8 Apr 2018 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 120 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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  1. 1
    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the options given :
    List IList II
    a. ErdkundeI. Alexander von Humboldt
    b. Anthropo-GeographieII. Jean Brunhes
    c. Geografia HumanaIII. Carl Ritter
    d. CosmosIV. Friedrich Ratzel
    Answer Options :

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  2. 2
    Examine the following statements and identify the correct statement/s : Statement ‘A’ : Within 24 hours the Earth rotates in 360° longitudes. Statement ‘B’ : The Earth requires four minutes to cross the one degree longitude.

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  3. 3
    Which of the following relief features is not an effect of internal forces of the Earth ?

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  4. 4
    Select the proper option from the following figures of ‘Relief Features’ created by volcanic eruption : (Figures a, b, c, d. Each option follows this order.)

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  5. 5
    Find out the correct sequence of planetary winds found from the equator to pole.

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  6. 6
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options. Assertion (A) : Oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region. Reason (R) : Equatorial region is characterized by heavy rainfall, cloudiness and humidity.

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  7. 7
    Which of the following is not a type of chemical weathering ?

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  8. 8
    Identify the correct statement/s from the following : Statement ‘A’ : The weight of water vapour per unit volume of air in specific temperature is called relative humidity. Statement ‘B’ : Specific humidity is the ratio of air water vapour content to its water vapour capacity at a given temperature.

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  9. 9
    Identify the correct statement/s from the following : Assertion (A) : The isotherm lines remain almost parallel to one another and parallel to latitudes on oceanic surfaces. Reason (R) : Temperatures at maritime locations are free from effect of elevation.

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  10. 10
    Consider the following statements and select the correct option from the following : a. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide. b. Fishing activity is well developed in warm tropical waters. c. Mixing of warm and cold currents brings plant nutrients for fish. d. Inland fisheries are more significant than other types in India. Answer Options :

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  11. 11
    In developing countries the population pyramid has a ______.

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  12. 12
    Examine the following statements and select the correct option : Statement ‘A’ : Some land area of India is situated in the northern hemisphere and some in the southern hemisphere. Statement ‘B’ : The extension of India from north to south is approximately more than 7500 km.

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  13. 13
    Examine the following statements and select the correct option. : Statement ‘A’ : Himalayan rivers cross many Himalayan ranges and the Shivalik Hills and enter into the plain area. Statement ‘B’ : Peninsular rivers flow through the rift valleys created by faults.

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  14. 14
    The rain fed and rain shadow areas are the characteristics of

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  15. 15
    Which region has the following characteristics ? a. Useful for water transport b. Production of coconut is taken up c. Favourable for fishing d. Attraction for tourists Answer Options :

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  16. 16
    Match the following Pollutants and their Mediums as per the UNEP documents :
    PollutantMedium
    a. Nitrogen oxidesI. Sea
    b. Petroleum hydrocarbonsII. Food
    c. FluoridesIII. Air
    d. MycotoxinsIV. Fresh water
    Answer Options :

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  17. 17
    Which of the following days is designated as World Ozone Day by the U.N. General Assembly ?

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  18. 18
    Which of the following greenhouse gases is entirely produced by human activities ?

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  19. 19
    The transitional area between two living organisms is known as

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  20. 20
    The impact of humans on global climate has been induced by which of the following ? a. Deforestation since 8000 years b. Use of fire and overgrazing c. Wet paddy cultivation since 5000 years d. Industrial revolution Answer Options :

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  21. 21
    At which of the following places was an iron and steel factory not started during the Second Five Year Plan ? a. Rourkela (Orissa) b. Bhilai (Chhattisgarh) c. Durgapur (West Bengal) d. Bokaro (Jharkhand) Answer Options :

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  22. 22
    Which of the following is/are not the supply-side factor/s responsible for inflation ? a. Increase in export b. Store c. Increase in credit creation d. Famine Answer Options :

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  23. 23
    Which of the following factors are not responsible for poverty ? a. Inflation b. Increase in Government expenditure c. Deficit Financing d. Short savings and Capital formation Answer Options :

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  24. 24
    “Absence of minimum income to get the minimum needs of life” is concerned with which of the following types of poverty ?

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  25. 25
    Identify the correct statement/s in context of the Food Security Act, 2013. a. It gives legal entitlement of food security to 75% rural and 50% urban population. b. A beneficiary will be entitled rice, coarse cereals and wheat @ ₹ 3, ₹ 2 and ₹ 1 per kg per month respectively. Answer Options :

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  26. 26
    What is the percentage of Indian population in the population of the world according to the Indian Census Report, 2011 ?

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  27. 27
    Which of the following population policies decided the minimum marriage age as 21 years for males and 18 years for females ?

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  28. 28
    Which of the following programmes is/are started by the Government of India for the purpose of ‘Social Security’ ? a. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana b. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana c. National Social Assistance Programme Answer Options :

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  29. 29
    Which of the following factors is/are concerned in the calculation of Green National Income (GNI) ? a. National Income b. Depletion of Natural Resources c. Environmental Degradation Answer Options :

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  30. 30
    Which of the following are measured in Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) ? a. Poverty and Hunger b. Women's Empowerment c. Environmental Sustainability d. Global Partnerships for Development Answer Options :

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  31. 31
    Which of the following schemes are included in women and child development schemes ? a. Anganwadi Services Scheme b. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Scheme c. National Nutrition Mission d. Child Protection Scheme Answer Options :

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  32. 32
    In any poverty reduction strategy there is a need to incorporate both self-employment and wage employment, because a. Self-employment is a major form of employment in rural areas. b. Dependence on wage employment will lead to total dependence on the employer. c. Otherwise it will increase the gap between the rich and the poor. d. It will strengthen the asset base of the rich. Answer Options :

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  33. 33
    The concept of Human Poverty Index (HPI) was introduced in the ______.

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  34. 34
    The phenomenal growth of ‘census towns’ is a challenge as these towns a. Do not have urban governance structure b. Do not have the requisite urban infrastructure c. Result out of rapid population growth Answer Options :

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  35. 35
    Which of the following was the aim of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 17) ?

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  36. 36
    Which of the following describes the Geostationary Orbit (GEO) correctly ?

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  37. 37
    In Fresnel's Biprism, the value of wavelength (λ\lambda) depends upon

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  38. 38
    What focal length should the spectacles have for a person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is 50 cm ?

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  39. 39
    A resistor of 10 Ω\Omega connected across a cell of emf 12 V, draws the current of 1·1 A. Find the internal resistance of the cell.

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  40. 40
    Two parallel slits 1 millimetre apart are placed 1 metre away from the screen. What is the fringe separation due to interference effect, when a beam of wavelength 500 nanometres is incident on them ?

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  41. 41
    A steam engine delivers 5⋅4×1085·4 \times 10^{8} J of work per minute by taking 3⋅6×1093·6 \times 10^{9} J of heat from its source. What is the efficiency of the engine ?

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  42. 42
    In some trees, copper deficiency may cause blisters and deep slits in the bark from which exudes gum. This disease is known as ______.

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  43. 43
    The maximum yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of sucrose via aerobic respiration is

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  44. 44
    The binomial system of classification was given by

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  45. 45
    According to Sir J.C. Bose, an Indian scientist, ascent of sap takes place due to the ______ of living cells of the innermost cortical layer.

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  46. 46
    Which of the following theories are related to evolution of life ? a. The theory of natural selection b. Mutation theory of evolution c. Theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics d. Theory of segregation Answer Options :

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  47. 47
    Which of the following are hormones of the pituitary gland ? a. TSH b. STH c. HCG d. ADH Answer Options :

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  48. 48
    The skeletal system performs which of the following functions ? a. Protection b. Hematopoiesis c. Movement facilitation d. Mineral storage Answer Options :

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  49. 49
    Gregor Mendel is often referred to as the Father of Genetics, since he first enunciated the principles of heredity. His experimental material was

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  50. 50
    The element M in the Dobereiner triad Ca, M and Ba is

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  51. 51
    Wood grain alcohol is nothing but

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  52. 52
    Water is often treated with chlorine to

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  53. 53
    Corrosion takes place as a result of ______.

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  54. 54
    Natural gas mainly consists of ______.

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  55. 55
    Fats and oils belong to the naturally occurring group of compounds called

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  56. 56
    On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect ? a. Citizenship b. Elections (Article-324) c. Provisional Parliament d. Fundamental Rights Answer Options :

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  57. 57
    In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India pronounce the verdict that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament ?

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  58. 58
    Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is incorrect ? a. The electoral college for election to this office consists of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. b. He can hold the office of the President for a period not exceeding six months in the absence of the President. c. For election to this office a candidate's nomination paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.

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  59. 59
    Consider the following statements : a. Zonal Councils are the constitutional bodies. b. The Prime Minister acts as the Chairman of all Zonal Councils. c. Each Chief Minister acts as the Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council by rotation. d. Joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils are presided over by the Union Home Minister.

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  60. 60
    Recommendations of the Sixth Report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission on Local Government are ______. a. Set up unified metropolitan transport authority in all cities of one million plus population. b. Constitute a local body ombudsman. c. Direct election of the Mayors. d. Set up District Councils and the Collector would work as the Chief Secretary. Answer Options :

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  61. 61
    Which of the following Directive Principles did not form part of the original Constitution and were added through constitutional amendments ? a. To minimise inequality in income. b. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife. c. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women. d. To ensure equal justice and free legal aid to the poor. e. To secure adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.

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  62. 62
    Which of the following statements are correct ? a. Parliament can increase a tax. b. Parliament cannot reduce a tax. c. Parliament can abolish a tax. d. Parliament cannot increase a tax. e. Parliament can reduce a tax.

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  63. 63
    Which of the following statements regarding Zero Hour are correct ? a. Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary Procedure. b. The time gap between the question hour and the agenda of house is known as Zero Hour. c. This device has been in existence since 1962. d. It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament.

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  64. 64
    Consider the following statements : a. The provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule Areas. b. At present seven states have Fifth Schedule Areas. c. The Parliament has enacted the PESA Act in 1996 for such areas. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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  65. 65
    Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may become the ‘Lingua Franca’ of the composite culture of India ?

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  66. 66
    The Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution mentions salary, allowances and other privileges of certain officials. Which one of the following is not amongst those officials ?

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  67. 67
    Which of the following statements is/are correct ? a. Only the Rajya Sabha and not Lok Sabha can have nominated members. b. There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya Sabha. c. There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as Union Ministers. d. A nominated member can vote both in Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.

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  68. 68
    Select the correct statement/s. a. Some democratic countries are republics. b. Some democratic countries are not republics. Answer Options :

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  69. 69
    Select the correct statement/s. a. A citizen enjoys all the civil rights in the State. b. A citizen enjoys all the political rights in the State. c. An alien enjoys all the civil rights in the State. d. An alien enjoys all the political rights in the State. Answer Options :

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  70. 70
    Arrange in appropriate order (formation of the States) : a. Mizoram b. Nagaland c. Meghalaya d. Maharashtra Answer Options :

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  71. 71
    Out of the following statements about the regulatory body in the field of higher education, which is not correct ?

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  72. 72
    Choose the correct statement/s from the following : a. India has less than one doctor per thousand population. b. The World Heath Organisation prescribes a minimum doctor – population ratio of 3 : 1000. (3 doctors for 1000 people) Answer Options :

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  73. 73
    Which of the following statements is incorrect about India's ‘Act East Policy’.

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  74. 74
    Consider the following statements about ‘Jnanpith (Gyanpith)’ Awards : a. Sponsored by the Government of India since 1952. b. Prior to 1982 it was given for single work of a writer. c. Now it is given for lifetime contribution of the writer. d. Award for the year 2017 has been declared to Krishna Sobti. Which of the above statements are correct ?

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  75. 75
    Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission ?

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  76. 76
    Which of the following statements about Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) is false ?

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  77. 77
    Dr. Dhirendra Pal Singh was recently in the news. Which is not true about him ?

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  78. 78
    In Maharashtra, Dr. Abdul Kalam Amrut Ahar Yojana is related with

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  79. 79
    Match the pairs :
    (Author)(Books)
    a. Shashi TharoorI. Ghachar Ghochar
    b. Raghuram RajanII. The End of Karma
    c. Somini SenguptaIII. I Do What I Do
    d. Vivek ShanbhagIV. An Era of Darkness

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  80. 80
    Kazuo Ishiguro is awarded with Nobel Prize in literature in 2017. Which of the following are not his works ? a. The Remains Of The Day b. A Pale View Of Hills c. An Artist Of The Floating World d. Norwegian Wood e. Kafka On The Shore Answer Options :

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  81. 81
    Select the incorrect statement. a. The first Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in London in 2011. b. The fourth Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in Budapest in 2015. c. The fifth Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in Delhi in 2017.

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  82. 82
    Choose the incorrect statement. a. The World Mental Health Day is observed on 10th October every year. b. The theme of 2017 World Mental Health Day was ‘Mental Health at the Workplace’. c. The World Health Day is celebrated on April 7th every year. d. The theme of 2017 World Health Day was ‘Depression’.

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  83. 83
    From 5th October to 25th October 2017 – this period of 21 days was celebrated by the Government of India as ______.

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  84. 84
    ‘Bharat Net’ is a flagship programme of the Government of India ______.

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  85. 85
    Government of Maharashtra's Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila Sakshamikaran Yojana is related to

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  86. 86
    Who from the following Gupta kings took the title of Mahendraditya ?

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  87. 87
    Match the following :
    a. TakshanI. Carpenter
    b. BhagadughaII. Collector of taxes
    c. KshattriIII. Chamberlain
    d. VidathaIV. An assembly in which both men and women participated
    Answer Options :

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  88. 88
    Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option : a. The relics of Chalcolithic civilization were found at Jorwe, Nevasa, Daimabad, Chandoli, Songaon, Inamgaon, Prakashe, Nasik, etc. in Maharashtra. b. The relics of Chalcolithic civilization were found at Ahar and Gilund in Rajasthan and Malwa, Kayatha, Eran, etc. in Madhya Pradesh. Answer Options :

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  89. 89
    Dasharadnya Yuddha (war) was fought between whom from the following ?

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  90. 90
    Which of the following edicts have information about Samrat Ashoka's Dhamma ?

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  91. 91
    Match the four provinces in Chandragupta Maurya's kingdom with their capitals :
    a. UttarapathaI. Patliputra
    b. Paschim pathII. Suvarnagiri
    c. Purva pathIII. Ujjayini
    d. Dakshin pathIV. Takshashila

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  92. 92
    Identify the person from the following description : a. Founder of a great empire. b. Cultured, scholar and a poet. c. The famous poet Harisena was his court poet and Buddhist scholar Vasubandhu was in his court. d. Vincent Smith praises him as the ‘Indian Napoleon’. Answer Options :

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  93. 93
    Identify the person from the description given below : a. He destroyed the dominance of Ulemas in the State. b. He was a mighty warrior and a successful general. c. He was supposed to be the first Sultan to attack the Southern kingdoms. d. The famous poet Amir Khusro was in his court. Answer Options :

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  94. 94
    Identify the person from the description given below : a. He was given the title Andhra Bhoj. b. There were eight famous Telugu poets in his court. c. He established the city called ‘Nagalapuram’. d. He was the only Hindu king to conquer the capitals of the Muslim kingdoms of Bidar and Gulbarga.

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  95. 95
    Which one of the following provisions was not involved in the treaty of Shrirangapattana between Tipu Sultan and the British ?

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  96. 96
    ______ had also founded ‘Free India Centres’ in Rome and Paris.

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  97. 97
    Who is described in the following sentences ? a. She was Gandhiji's staunch disciple. b. She was the daughter of a British admiral. c. She was popularly known as Mira Behn.

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  98. 98
    Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option : a. The new variety of activity in India therefore called for the transformation of a traditionally and mentally subject society into one receptive to democratic ideas and responding to the call for agitation. b. It was an arduous and stupendous task. Answer Options :

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  99. 99
    Name the social reformer described in the following sentences : a. His family believed in the teachings of Kabir who condemned the caste system. b. His father served in the army and retired as a Subedar-Major. c. His satchel was untouchable for the lady peon in his school. d. He could not study Sanskrit because he was an untouchable.

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  100. 100
    Name the social reformer described in the following sentences : a. He was the recipient of the American Unitarian Association Scholarship. b. He had been to England for two years for the comparative study of many religions. c. He attended the conference on religions at Amsterdam. d. He used to write for Subodh Patrika.

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