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MPSC State Services Prelims 2019, GS Paper I, 17 Feb 2019 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 120 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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  1. 1
    An astronaut in the satellite feels weightlessness because ______ a. the force exerted by the satellite floor on the astronaut is equal to zero. b. the astronaut and the satellite floor are attracted towards each other. c. he is not attracted by any gravitational force. d. None of the above Answer Options :

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  2. 2
    In electronic communication system, digital signals a. do not provide a continuous set of values. b. represent values as discrete steps. c. utilize binary system. d. utilize decimal as well as binary systems. Which of the above statements are true ?

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  3. 3
    Energy of the electron revolving around the nucleus in second orbit is – 3·4 eV. What is its energy in third orbit ?

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  4. 4
    Optical fibre is based on which of the following principles ? a. Principle of reflection of light b. Principle of refraction of light c. Principle of total internal reflection d. Principle of dispersion of light Answer Options :

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  5. 5
    Consider the following statements : a. Beta particles are negatively charged and are more penetrating than Alpha particles, which are positively charged. b. Gamma particles are neutral and are more penetrating than Beta-particles. c. In general neutral particles can be said to be having very high penetrating power. Answer Options :

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  6. 6
    During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remains conserved ?

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  7. 7
    Name the transgenic crop in which three genes for synthesis of vitamin A are introduced through the technique of genetic engineering.

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  8. 8
    How many linkage groups are present in the female and male grasshopper insect ?

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  9. 9
    Name the plant having H.S.K. or C4\mathrm{C_4} pathway of photosynthesis.

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  10. 10
    Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing ______ chemical compounds.

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  11. 11
    In the nephron of man, what is the correct sequence of urine formation ?

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  12. 12
    Which of the following situations will be fatal to second foetus ?

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  13. 13
    Match the following :
    Respiratory PigmentAnimal/Animal group
    a. HaemoglobinI. Annelida
    b. ChlorocruorinII. Vertebrates
    c. HemerythrinIII. Lingula
    d. HaemocyaninIV. Molluscs
    Answer Options :

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  14. 14
    Consider the following statements about sliding filament theory of muscle contraction : a. This theory explains the modern concept of muscle contraction. b. This theory was put forward by Huxley and Niedergerke. Which of the above statements is/are true ?

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  15. 15
    During calcination process

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  16. 16
    By green chemistry, we mean

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  17. 17
    Which of the following is not a Lewis acid ?

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  18. 18
    The following are some of the properties of the colloidal sols : a. Tyndall effect b. Brownian motion c. Maxwell distribution d. van der Waals forces Answer Options :

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  19. 19
    Which of the following statements are correct ? a. HF and H2O\mathrm{H_2O} are polar molecules. b. CH4\mathrm{CH_4} and CO2\mathrm{CO_2} are non-polar molecules. c. CO2\mathrm{CO_2} and SO2\mathrm{SO_2} are non-polar molecules. Answer Options :

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  20. 20
    Which of the following reactants can be used to prepare ammonia ? a. NH4Cl+Ca(OH)2\mathrm{NH_4Cl + Ca(OH)_2} b. N2+H2\mathrm{N_2 + H_2} c. CaCN2+H2O\mathrm{CaCN_2 + H_2O} Answer Options :

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  21. 21
    Consider the following statements regarding changes made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of Constituent Assembly : a. The Constituent Assembly was made a fully sovereign body. b. The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India. c. When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. d. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389. Answer Options :

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  22. 22
    Which one of the following has not been provided by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 relating to National Emergency ?

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  23. 23
    Consider the following statements : a. The original Constitution provided that the Vice-President would be elected by the two Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting. b. The 11th Constitutional Amendment, 1961 changed the procedure of election of the Vice-President. c. The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members only of both the Houses. d. The election of the Vice-President cannot be challenged on the grounds that the electoral college was incomplete. Answer Options :

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  24. 24
    Which one of the following statements about the Governor of Maharashtra is true ?

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  25. 25
    Which of the following items is wrongly matched ?

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  26. 26
    In the case of a bill passed by the State Legislature, Governor can reserve it for the consideration of the President. a. The President may declare or withhold his assent to the bill. b. The President may return the bill for reconsideration to the State Legislature. c. State Legislature must reconsider the bill within three months and if passed again it is obligatory upon the President to give his assent. d. In case of reconsidered bill which is passed again by State Legislature, President shall declare his assent within a period of six months. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  27. 27
    In India, Judicial Review implies

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  28. 28
    Which of the following statements is/are included as provision of the Indian Constitution ? a. The person to be appointed as Governor of a State should be a domicile of some other State of the Indian Union. b. There should be at least one Muslim judge in the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular character. c. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament should belong to a party in the opposition. Answer Options :

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  29. 29
    Consider the following statements : a. Odisha Legislative Assembly passed resolution for creation of Legislative Council recently. b. Currently, five States have Legislative Councils. c. Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Kerala and Gujarat are pending in Parliament. d. 112\frac{1}{12}th members of Legislative Council are elected by registered graduates. Which of the above statements are correct ?

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  30. 30
    Which one of the following statements is/are not correct ? a. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based. b. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha procedures of admissibility have been laid down in Rule 198 of Lok Sabha. c. A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted. d. In Italy, the government requires the support of both houses of Parliament. Answer Options :

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  31. 31
    Which one of the following statements about Election Commission of India is false ?

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  32. 32
    Consider the following provisions : a. According to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the ‘due process of Law’. b. According to Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. c. According to Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Which of the provisions given above is not correct ?

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  33. 33
    Consider the following statements : a. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution relates to admission or establishment of new States which are not part of the Union of India. b. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of or changes in the existing States including Union territories. c. A Bill under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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  34. 34
    Which one of the following statements about ‘Lok Adalat’ is incorrect ?

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  35. 35
    Consider the following statements about the States Reorganisation Commission and Act ? a. The commission was appointed in December, 1953. b. The commission was headed by Fazal Ali and two members of the commission were H.V. Kamath and Govind Ballabh Pant. c. The commission submitted its report on September 30, 1954. d. The States Re-organisation Act was enacted on August 31, 1956. e. The States Re-organisation Act came into effect on January 1, 1957. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  36. 36
    Which one of the following statements about ‘Statue of Unity’ is false ?

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  37. 37
    Consider the following statements : a. There are five types of bones in the skeleton. b. The function of the long bones is to support weight and facilitate movement. c. The function of the flat bones is to protect tendons from stress. Answer Options :

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  38. 38
    Which one of the following statements about Nuclear Supplier's Group (NSG) is not correct ?

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  39. 39
    Match the pairs about ‘BRICS’ summit :
    YearSummit
    a. 2014I. Goa Summit
    b. 2015II. Fortaleza Summit
    c. 2016III. Xiamen Summit
    d. 2017IV. Ufa Summit
    e. 2018V. Johannesburg Summit
    Answer Options :

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  40. 40
    Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018 ?

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  41. 41
    On January 31, 2018, a rare ‘Blue Moon’ event was experienced in large parts of the globe. In that context consider the following statements : a. It was a rare moment as a blue moon, a super moon and a total lunar eclipse fell on the same day. b. When two full moons appear in the same calendar month, the second is termed as ‘Super moon’. c. When the full moon is at the closest point of its orbit to the Earth it is termed as ‘Blue moon’. The correct statement/s is/are :

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  42. 42
    Consider the following statements about ‘Swachh Survekshan Gramin Awards, 2018’ : a. Haryana was ranked as best State in India. b. Maharashtra was ranked as second best State in India. c. Satara District of Maharashtra was ranked as best district. d. Nashik District of Maharashtra was ranked first for maximum citizens participation. Answer Options :

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  43. 43
    ‘Tikka’ disease affects which one of the following crops ?

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  44. 44
    Consider the following statements : a. As of July 2018, a total of 1092 World Heritage sites exist across 167 countries. b. Italy, with 54 World Heritage sites has the most of any country (up to July 2018). c. India has 39 World Heritage sites (up to July 2018). d. A collection of Victorian, Gothic and Art Deco buildings of Mumbai are declared as World Heritage sites in 2018. Which of the above statements are correct ?

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  45. 45
    Consider the following statements : a. India was elected to the UN's top human rights body for a period of three years beginning January 1, 2019. b. India got 188 votes in the Asia-Pacific category, the highest number of votes among all candidates in UNHRC election. c. India had previously been elected to the Geneva based Human Rights Council for the 2010 – 2013 and 2013 – 2016 term. Which of the above statements is/are true ?

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  46. 46
    Which is the world's fastest super computer ? (Up to end of June 2018)

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  47. 47
    Which of the following statements is/are correct ? a. India opens Zokhawthar immigration check-post in Mizoram along Myanmar border. b. Zokhawthar is the second immigration check-post in Mizoram along Myanmar border after Zorinpui check-post. c. India shares 1751 km long border with Myanmar which touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Meghalaya. Answer Options :

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  48. 48
    Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

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  49. 49
    Recently ‘Bonnethead Shark’ was in the news. Consider the following statements regarding this : a. It mainly eats the sea grass. b. It is mainly found in Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea. Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given below :

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  50. 50
    Consider the following statements : a. The Constitution does not include any provision for categorisation of any State in India as a Special Category Status (SCS) State. b. The National Development Council first accorded SCS in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland. c. The Central Government pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally sponsored scheme to SCS category States as against 60% in case of normal States. Which of the above statements is/are false ?

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  51. 51
    Match the following governors of Muhammad Ghori and the territories where they ruled almost independently after the death of Muhammad Ghori.
    GovernorTerritory
    a. YaldozI. Delhi
    b. KubachaII. Bengal
    c. Muhammad-ibn-BakhtyarIII. Indus
    d. AibakIV. Afghan Mountains
    Answer Options :

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  52. 52
    In the Pre-Mauryan period India was known as ______.

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  53. 53
    Match the following dynasties and their kings :
    DynastyKing
    a. RashtrakutI. Gopal
    b. CholaII. Upendra
    c. PalasIII. Dantidurga
    d. ParmarsIV. Vijayalaya
    Answer Options :

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  54. 54
    It was the result of Achaemenid conquest that a new industry of ______ developed in Indian borderland, specially in Kamboj.

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  55. 55
    Match the following :
    KingDescription
    a. The king of KamarupaI. Was already humbled by Prabhakarvardhna.
    b. The ruler of SindII. Dared not detain a Chinese pilgrim at his capital against the wish of Harsha.
    c. The ruler of KashmirIII. Was compelled to surrender a tooth relic to Harsha.
    d. The ruler of ValabhiIV. Had once fled before the advancing arms of Kanauj Monarch but later married his daughter.
    Answer Options :

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  56. 56
    Who from the following persons was not related to the State of Kolhapur ?

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  57. 57
    Match the following :
    PersonWork
    a. C. RajgopalachariI. Was elected as the President of the Central Legislative Assembly.
    b. Madan Mohan Malviya and Lala Lajpat RaiII. Kept himself busy with constructive programmes such as upliftment of Harijans.
    c. Vithalbhai PatelIII. Was elected Mayor of Calcutta.
    d. C.R. DasIV. Criticized the Swarajists.
    Answer Options :

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  58. 58
    Who is described in the following sentences ? a. He was an author from Pune. b. He used to go in the colonies of the untouchables and teach them. c. In 1945 he was the president of the function arranged to celebrate ‘Ambedkar Jayanti’ at Kalyan. d. He was a supporter of Hinduism from Pune. Answer Options :

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  59. 59
    Match the following :
    PersonWork
    a. Pandit Ramkumar VidyaratnaI. Wrote English articles for newspaper ‘Bengalee’
    b. Krishna Kumar MitraII. Was a Brahmo missionary
    c. Pandit Shivnath ShastriIII. Editor of Bengali newspaper ‘Sanjivani’
    d. Dwarkanath GangulyIV. Wrote ‘Kuli-Kahini’
    Answer Options :

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  60. 60
    Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer options. a. Mughal architecture is of Indian style. b. Mughal architecture was influenced by both, the Persian and Hindu arts. c. There is an impact of foreigners on Mughal architecture. d. Mughal architecture was influenced by no one. Answer Options :

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  61. 61
    Arrange the following incidents in their chronological order. a. Muslim League was formed in Dhaka. b. Khudiram Bose was executed. c. Bomb was thrown at Lord Hardinge. d. Hindu Conference was held at Lahore, under the Presidentship of Sir Prafulchandra Chatterji. Answer Options :

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  62. 62
    Who from the following women scholars were related to the Rigvedic Period ? a. Vishwavara b. Apala c. Lopamudra d. Ghosha Answer Options :

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  63. 63
    In which of the following forms was India's capital and wealth transferred to Britain ? a. Salaries and pensions of the British civil and military officials working in India. b. Profits of the British capitalists in India. c. Expenses of the Indian government in Britain. d. Interests on loans by the Indian government. Answer Options :

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  64. 64
    Pick out the odd person from the following :

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  65. 65
    The generals of ______ conquered land upto Ganges, while his admirals established their authority over several overseas territories including Ceylon, Nicobar islands and parts of the Malaya Peninsula.

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  66. 66
    Match the pairs of Column A and Column B :
    Column A (Origin of Solar System)Column B (Inventor)
    a. Nebular HypothesisI. James Jeans
    b. Meteorite HypothesisII. Moulton
    c. Planetesimal HypothesisIII. Lockyer
    d. Tidal HypothesisIV. Laplace
    Answer Options :

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  67. 67
    What are the evidences in favour of the Continental Drift Theory ? Select the proper option ? a. Jigsaw fit b. Trans-current faults c. Fossils in different areas d. Convection in mantle Answer Options :

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  68. 68
    Examine the following statements and select the proper option. Statement ‘A’ : Inner core of the Earth is made up by Nickel and Ferrous. Statement ‘B’ : The Earth's crust is made up of Silica, Aluminium and Magnesium. Answer Options :

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  69. 69
    Examine and identify the correct statements of the following : Statement ‘A’ : Deccan Plateau is made up of Basalt Rock. Statement ‘B’ : The origin of Basalt Rock on the Deccan Plateau is due to the deposition of lava erupted from volcano. Answer Options :

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  70. 70
    Match the pairs of column A and column B :
    Column A (Type of Rock)Column B (Rock)
    a. Extrusive Igneous RockI. Dyke
    b. Intrusive Igneous RockII. Arenaceous Rock
    c. Sedimentary RockIII. Graphite
    d. Metamorphic RockIV. Conglomerate
    Answer Options :

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  71. 71
    The following figures are the ‘Relief Features’ created by external forces. Select the proper option from these relief features created by external forces. (Figures, left to right : U-Shaped Valley, Gorge, Barkhan, Arch. Each option follows this order.)

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  72. 72
    Examine the statement A and statement B. Statement ‘A’ : 35% solar energy is not useful for the heating of Earth's surface as well as atmosphere, that heat is called “Albedo of the Earth's surface”. Statement ‘B’ : Through Short Waves, Scattering and Reflection process of the air molecules, heat is transferred by the small dust particles, clouds and earth's surface in the space. Answer Options :

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  73. 73
    Match the pairs of column A and column B :
    Column A (Local winds)Column B (Regions where they are found)
    a. ChinookI. Alps mountains in Europe
    b. FöhnII. From South Europe to Mediterranean Sea
    c. LooIII. Plain area of North India
    d. MistralIV. Rocky Mountains in North America
    Answer Options :

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  74. 74
    Match the pairs of column A and column B :
    Column A (Soil Type)Column B (Crops)
    a. Mountainous soilI. Cereals
    b. Black soilII. Cashew
    c. Desert soilIII. Apple
    d. Laterite soilIV. Cotton
    Answer Options :

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  75. 75
    Match the pairs and choose correct option :
    RockDistrict
    a. Gondwana series rocksI. Yavatmal, Gadchiroli
    b. Dharwar series rocksII. Sawantwadi, Vengurla
    c. Archean series rocksIII. Bhandara, Gondia
    d. Vindhyan series rocksIV. Chandrapur
    Answer Options :

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  76. 76
    Match the following and choose the correct option.
    a. 1st Satellite communication centre in Maharashtra.I. Wardha
    b. District having complete electrification in Maharashtra.II. Gangapur (Nashik)
    c. 1st earthen dam in Maharashtra.III. Arvi
    d. 1st hydroelectric project in Maharashtra.IV. Khopoli (Raigad)
    Answer Options :

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  77. 77
    Match the appropriate pairs of Rivers and Cities on the river bank.
    RiverCities on river bank
    a. PanzaraI. Sangamner
    b. DhamII. Bhusawal
    c. PravaraIII. Dhule
    d. TapiIV. Pawnar
    Answer Options :

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  78. 78
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options. Assertion (A) : Air transport is a very useful means of transport in mountainous and hilly regions for all. Reason (B) : It is very costly and difficult to construct roads and railways in mountainous regions. Answer Options :

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  79. 79
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options. Assertion (A) : Deforestation results in the increase of concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Reason (B) : Forests utilise carbon dioxide during the process of photosynthesis for manufacturing of food. Answer Options :

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  80. 80
    Observe the map and find the out the correct option of blowing winds.

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  81. 81
    Study the following statements about Greenhouse gases effect. a. Our planet was heating at the rate of 1°C per 100 years, till 1970. b. Since last 20 years, the planet has been warming at the rate of 10°C per 100 years. c. Most of the glaciers in different parts of the world are retreating. d. Frequency and effect of El Niño is increasing. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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  82. 82
    Match the following :
    Column I (Waste Disposal Method)Column II (Meaning)
    a. Sanitary landfillsI. Burning of waste
    b. IncinerationII. Deposit the refuse and compost it with bulldozers
    c. PulverizingIII. Combustion in absence of oxygen
    d. PyrolysisIV. Spreading the waste on fields
    Answer Options :

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  83. 83
    The effects of aerosols on climate is/are a. They directly reflect sunlight back to space. b. They indirectly make clouds brighter reflectors. c. Aerosols have a net cooling effect on climate systems. d. Human generated aerosols offset the impact of global warming to some extent. Which of the above effects is/are true ?

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  84. 84
    Which of the following is the major cause of poor health in Indians ?

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  85. 85
    The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janeiro resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity, which came into force in which of the following date ?

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  86. 86
    To whom is the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2018 awarded for their contribution in sustainable and long term economic development ?

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  87. 87
    Match the author/committee and their poverty concept :
    Author/CommitteeConcept
    a. World BankI. Per capita per day, the availability of food in village 2400 calories, in city 2100 calories.
    b. Shri Gaurav DattII. Poverty gap
    c. Lakdawala Committee (1993)III. Availability of food is less than 2250 calories per day
    d. Dr. Dandekar and Dr. RathIV. According to 1973-74 prices, who do not get per capita per month in village ₹ 49·09 and in city ₹ 57 for food
    Answer Options :

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  88. 88
    Prices of which of the following commodities are considered in Wholesale Price Index (WPI) ? a. Primary Goods b. Oil c. Manufactured Goods Answer Options :

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  89. 89
    Which of the following criteria was considered by P.D. Ojha Committee (1960-61) for calculating poverty line ?

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  90. 90
    Which of the following are the indicators of the contribution of government in the process of Inclusive Growth ?

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  91. 91
    In the context of planning era i.e. 1951 to 2011, take into consideration the following statements : a. Food production increases fourfold, diversified industrial growth takes place. b. Import substitution, diversified export promotion and science and technical educational expansion takes place. c. Achievement in reducing poverty and unemployment ratio. d. Reduction in concentration of economic power, decentralization of income and wealth takes place. Which of the above statements are true ?

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  92. 92
    Which of the following is not a millenium development goal ?

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  93. 93
    Which of the following factors are included in Gender Inequality Index (GII) ? a. Reproductive Health b. Empowerment c. Labour market Answer Options :

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  94. 94
    Which of the following scheme/schemes is/are useful for socio-economic growth of minority communities ? a. Nai Roshni b. Padho Pardesh c. Learn and Earn d. Nai Manzil Answer Options :

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  95. 95
    In June 2012, according to Rio +20 declaration, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were decided. Which of the following features was/were not decided ? a. Poverty eradication, fight against unequality, gender equality. b. Health and educational reforms, ocean and forest protection. c. World partnership for sustainable development and effective structure for follow-up and review. d. Ban on terrorist organisations and attacks on other countries. Answer Options :

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  96. 96
    As per the 2011 census, match the cities according to their population.
    CitiesPopulation (In millions)
    a. Greater BombayI. 8·7
    b. DelhiII. 14·1
    c. KolkataIII. 16·3
    d. ChennaiIV. 18·4
    Answer Options :

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  97. 97
    The LPG model of development was introduced in 1991 by then Finance Minister ______.

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  98. 98
    Under the Eleventh Plan, some of the monitorable targets reflecting inclusiveness include a. infrastructure b. environment c. income and poverty d. education and health Answer Options :

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  99. 99
    Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) for financial inclusion was launched on which date ?

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  100. 100
    The scope of land reforms includes a. Abolition of intermediaries b. Tenancy Reforms c. Ceiling on land holdings d. Organisation of co-operative farming Answer Options :

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