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NDA 2018 (II), Paper II, General Ability Test question paper

150 questions · 600 marks · 150 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1.33 per wrong one

Every question in the order it was set, free to read. Tap an option to check it, or open the answer and worked solution. Answers open as you go; sign in free to keep opening them.

Sit it as a timed mock

English

50 questions

  1. Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
    1
    He appears to be a honest man. No error

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  2. 2
    One of the members expressed doubt if the Minister was an atheist. No error

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  3. 3
    This view has been taken by one of the ablest persons who has written on this subject. No error

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  4. 4
    Slow and steady owns the race, as the wise would say. No error

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  5. 5
    We often hear people say that most human beings have not evolved or grow up enough to stick to truth or non-violence. No error

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  6. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
    6
    The Industrial Revolution saw a massive rise in the population of Europe.

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  7. 7
    I had some deepest convictions reflected in my work.

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  8. 8
    This boy is very timid.

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  9. 9
    My friend is as stubborn as a mule.

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  10. 10
    His behaviour was deliberately provocative.

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  11. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
    11
    Too many cooks spoil the broth.

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  12. 12
    He is biased against the students from cities.

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  13. 13
    It is easy to be an orthodox.

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  14. 14
    Permit me to present you with a book.

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  15. 15
    None but the brave deserves the fair.

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  16. Directions : In this section, you have two short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. "Now, ladies and gentlemen," said the conjuror, "having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!" All around the hall people were saying, "Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?" But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, "He-had-it-up-his-sleeve." Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, "Oh, of course"; and everybody whispered round the hall, "He-had-it-up-his-sleeve." "My next trick," said the conjuror, "is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join (clang, clang, clang)—Presto!" There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, "He-must-have-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve." Again everybody nodded and whispered, "The-rings-were-up-his-sleeve." The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown. "I will now," he continued, "show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you—Presto!" He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, "He-has-a-hen-up-his-sleeve," and all the people whispered it on. "He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve." The egg trick was ruined. It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll's cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.
    16
    "The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown." The sentence means that the conjuror

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  17. 17
    "The egg trick was ruined." This means that

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  18. 18
    According to the Quick Man, the conjuror

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  19. 19
    The author believes that the Quick Man was really

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  20. 20
    The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of

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  21. Directions : (Passage 2 — Magda and Mrs. Smiles conversation about weather, Magda's sister visiting, and Magda staying abroad until her sister settles.)
    21
    Magda had not been out much lately because

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  22. 22
    Magda was not going back home yet because

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  23. 23
    Mrs. Smiles says, "You're looking forward to that." This means, Magda was ______ her sister's arrival.

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  24. 24
    Magda's sister was coming to

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  25. 25
    Mrs. Smiles and Magda are

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  26. Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    26
    We fail to understand your reasons for ______ the college without completing the degree.

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  27. 27
    She ______ her energy and started shouting only when she heard the noise of bulldozers and cranes.

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  28. 28
    The British ______ all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.

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  29. 29
    The football match has to be ______ because of the weather.

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  30. 30
    If I were rich, ______ a lot.

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  31. 31
    They apologized ______ me for what happened.

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  32. 32
    If you are tired of swimming, just ______ for a while.

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  33. 33
    He had ______ spoken for two minutes when there was a commotion in the crowd.

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  34. 34
    I would not commit myself ______ that course of action.

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  35. 35
    The soldiers waiting to go into battle for the first time were full of ______.

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  36. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    36
    A red-letter day

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  37. 37
    The gift of the gab

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  38. 38
    Walk a tightrope

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  39. 39
    To be in a fix

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  40. 40
    To fish in troubled waters

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  41. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    41
    Domestic fires in Indian villages P. as the heat is dispersed Q. an unhealthy smoke accumulates in unventilated houses R. are wasteful S. lit in Chulhas The correct sequence should be

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  42. 42
    Bold rocks near at hand P. makes a fine forest for the imagination Q. than distant Alps R. are more inspiring S. and the thick fern upon a heath The correct sequence should be

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  43. 43
    Newton discovered that P. due to the gravitational pull Q. of the earth R. the apple falls S. on the ground The correct sequence should be

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  44. 44
    The knocking P. were still in the house Q. for some time R. although the echoes of it S. ceased The correct sequence should be

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  45. 45
    The history of mankind is P. and steady progress Q. continuous change R. the history of S. from barbarism to refinement The correct sequence should be

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  46. Directions : In the following passage there are some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. The honeybee is a very unusual kind of insect. ______ other insects which live alone, the honeybee lives as a/an ______ of a community. These bees live together in what is known as a bee ______. The head of the bees is called the queen bee. She is ______ than the rest of the bees. Her main task is to ______ eggs.
    46
    ______ other insects which live alone, the honeybee lives as a/an ______ of a community. [Blank 46]

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  47. 47
    ...the honeybee lives as a/an ______ of a community. [Blank 47]

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  48. 48
    ...together in what is known as a bee ______. [Blank 48]

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  49. 49
    She is ______ than the rest of the bees. [Blank 49]

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  50. 50
    Her main task is to ______ eggs. [Blank 50]

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General Knowledge

100 questions

  1. Directions : The following six (6) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
    51
    Statement I : The pitch of the sound wave depends upon its frequency. Statement II : The loudness of the sound wave depends upon its amplitude.

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  2. 52
    Statement I : Sound wave cannot propagate in vacuum. Statement II : Sound waves are elastic waves and require a medium to propagate.

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  3. 53
    Statement I : The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced Dyarchy at the Centre. Statement II : The provincial autonomy was granted to the Provinces.

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  4. 54
    Statement I : Mughal Painting reached its climax during the reign of Jahangir. Statement II : Aurangzeb's Court was adorned by some of the best known artists of the Mughal School of Painting.

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  5. 55
    Statement I : Phytoplankton produce most of the organic carbon in the ocean. Statement II : Algae are produced in the cold water biome.

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  6. 56
    Statement I : Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 600 metres, parallel to the isobars. Statement II : Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind velocity, in which the Coriolis force balances the horizontal pressure force.

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  7. 57
    Which one of the following groups of cellular organelles contains DNA?

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  8. 58
    One of the additional functions of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is

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  9. 59
    Damage to the apical meristem of a growing young plant will affect the

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  10. 60
    Which of the following kingdoms has/have only unicellular organisms?

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  11. 61
    Which one of the following is a waterborne disease?

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  12. 62
    The atomic number of an element is 8. How many electrons will it gain to form a compound with sodium?

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  13. 63
    A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u respectively. The proportion of these isotopes in the sample is 3 : 1. What will be the average atomic mass of oxygen in this sample?

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  14. 64
    Which one of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

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  15. 65
    What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate? (Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23 u, 12 u and 16 u respectively)

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  16. 66
    Which one of the following is called 'syngas'?

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  17. 67
    The frequency of ultrasound waves is

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  18. 68
    The magnetic field strength of a current-carrying wire at a particular distance from the axis of the wire

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  19. 69
    A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at a temperature TT and pressure PP. The total number of Ar atoms in the chamber is nn. Now Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by CO2\text{CO}_2 gas and the total number of CO2\text{CO}_2 molecules in the chamber is n/2n/2 at the same temperature TT. The pressure in the chamber now is P′P'. Which one of the following relations holds true? (Both the gases behave as ideal gases)

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  20. 70
    Which one of the following is the correct relation between Å and nm?

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  21. 71
    The full form of LED is

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  22. 72
    If a free electron moves through a potential difference of 1 kV, then the energy gained by the electron is given by

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  23. 73
    Consider the following places of India : 1. Itanagar 2. Imphal 3. Agartala 4. Aizawl Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above places in terms of sunrise time?

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  24. 74
    Which one of the following is known as uplands of delta region?

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  25. 75
    Consider the following Wildlife Sanctuaries of India : 1. Shikari Devi 2. Bhadra 3. Simlipal 4. Pachmarhi Which one of the following is the correct order of the above Wildlife Sanctuaries in terms of their location from south to north?

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  26. 76
    Which one of the following statements about temperature is correct?

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  27. 77
    Which one of the following is known as a zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical section of ocean?

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  28. 78
    Permanent hardness of water cannot\textbf{\text{cannot}} be removed by which one of the following methods?

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  29. 79
    Which one of the following reactions will give NO (nitric oxide) gas as one of the products?

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  30. 80
    Which one of the following is a tribasic acid?

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  31. 81
    Which one of the following statements is not\textbf{\text{not}} correct?

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  32. 82
    Which one of the following is called dry ice?

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  33. 83
    The acidic semidigested food coming out of the stomach is neutralized by

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  34. 84
    The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the

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  35. 85
    The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from splitting of

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  36. 86
    Which one of the following depicts the correct circuit of a reflex arc?

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  37. 87
    If one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented as NN; in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm nucleus of a diploid plant would have how many sets of chromosomes respectively?

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  38. 88
    Consider the circuit shown below. Which one of the following is the value of the resistance between points AA and BB in this circuit?

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  39. 89
    The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In °C unit, which one of the following is the absolute zero temperature?

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  40. 90
    Consider the following statements about visible light, UV light and X-rays : 1. The wavelength of visible light is more than that of X-rays. 2. The energy of X-ray photons is higher than that of UV light photons. 3. The energy of UV light photons is less than that of visible light photons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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  41. 91
    The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum having length LL and mass of the bob mm is given as TT. If the length of the pendulum is increased to 4L4L and the mass of the bob is increased to 2m2m, then which one of the following is the new time period of oscillation?

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  42. 92
    The connecting cable of electrical appliances like electric iron, water heater or room heater contains three insulated copper wires of three different colours—red, green and black. Which one of the following is the correct colour code?

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  43. 93
    The graphs between current (II) and voltage (VV) for three linear resistors 1, 2 and 3 are given. If R1R_1, R2R_2 and R3R_3 are the resistances of these resistors, then which one of the following is correct?

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  44. 94
    Consider the following statements about a microscope and a telescope : 1. Both the eyepiece and the objective of a microscope are convex lenses. 2. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is larger than the focal length of its eyepiece. 3. The magnification of a telescope increases with the increase in focal length of its objective. 4. The magnification of a microscope increases with the increase in focal length of its objective. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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  45. 95
    A planet has a mass M1M_1 and radius R1R_1. The value of acceleration due to gravity on its surface is g1g_1. There is another planet 2, whose mass and radius both are two times that of the first planet. Which one of the following is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 2?

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  46. 96
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (River Basin)List-II (Town)
    A. Bhagirathi1. Lansdowne
    B. Alaknanda2. Narendra Nagar
    C. Nayar3. Uttarkashi
    D. Ganga4. Pauri

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  47. 97
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (Local Wind)List-II (Place)
    A. Yamo1. Sudan
    B. Black Roller2. France
    C. Bise3. Japan
    D. Haboob4. North America

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  48. 98
    'Majuli', the river island, is located in which one of the following rivers?

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  49. 99
    Which one of the following Indian States has recorded negative growth of population as per Census 2011?

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  50. 100
    Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized by continuous precipitation?

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  51. 101
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (Major Port)List-II (Location)
    A. Kolkata1. Landlocked area
    B. Mormugao2. In the delta region
    C. Visakhapatnam3. On the riverside
    D. Paradip4. On the entrance of the estuary

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  52. 102
    Which one of the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} an agent of metamorphism?

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  53. 103
    The solution of which one of the following will have pH less than 7?

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  54. 104
    Which one of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

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  55. 105
    Which one of the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} used as fertilizer?

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  56. 106
    Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum?

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  57. 107
    Which one of the following statements about the law of conservation of mass is correct?

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  58. 108
    The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of

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  59. 109
    Consider the following velocity and time graph. Which one of the following is the value of average acceleration from 8 s to 12 s?

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  60. 110
    If the focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm, which one of the following is its power?

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  61. 111
    A ball is released from rest and rolls down an inclined plane, as shown in the following figure, requiring 4 s to cover a distance of 100 cm along the plane. Which one of the following is the correct value of angle θ\theta that the plane makes with the horizontal? (g=1000g = 1000 cm/s2^2)

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  62. 112
    The coefficient of areal expansion of a material is 1.6×10−51.6 \times 10^{-5} K−1^{-1}. Which one of the following gives the value of coefficient of volume expansion of this material?

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  63. 113
    The refractive indices of two media are denoted by n1n_1 and n2n_2, and the velocities of light in these two media are respectively v1v_1 and v2v_2. If n2/n1n_2/n_1 is 1·5, which one of the following statements is correct?

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  64. 114
    Which one of the following greenhouse gases is in largest concentration in the atmosphere?

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  65. 115
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (Koppen's Climatic Type)List-II (Letter Code)
    A. Tropical wet1. Af
    B. Mid-latitude desert2. Cs
    C. Mediterranean3. Df
    D. Humid continental4. BWk

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  66. 116
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (Railway Zone)List-II (Headquarters)
    A. West Central1. Jabalpur
    B. South East Central2. Gorakhpur
    C. East Central3. Bilaspur
    D. North Eastern4. Hajipur

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  67. 117
    Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011?

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  68. 118
    Steppe (temperate continental) climate is not\textbf{\text{not}} experienced in which one of the following places?

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  69. 119
    Which one of the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} a process of chemical weathering?

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  70. 120
    Which one of the following statements is correct for a plane mirror?

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  71. 121
    An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Which one of the following statements is correct?

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  72. 122
    A circular coil of radius RR having NN number of turns carries a steady current II. The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil is 0·1 tesla. If the number of turns is doubled and the radius is halved, which one of the following will be the correct value for the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil?

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  73. 123
    Which one among the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?

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  74. 124
    Which one of the following crops was introduced by the Portuguese in India?

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  75. 125
    Consider the following statements about merchant guilds of South India : 1. Ayyavole merchant guild was originally established in Aihole. 2. Manigraman merchant guild was subordinated to the Anjuvannam merchant guild in the 13th century. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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  76. 126
    Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Bhakti Saint — Philosophy

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  77. 127
    When did the Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from 9 of the 13 colonies of America meet in New York City?

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  78. 128
    Who among the following travellers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century?

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  79. 129
    Where did the French East India Company first establish its factory in India?

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  80. 130
    The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following Committees?

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  81. 131
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List-I (Author)List-II (Book)
    A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak1. The Arctic Home in the Vedas
    B. Dadabhai Naoroji2. Hind Swaraj
    C. Mahatma Gandhi3. The Discovery of India
    D. Jawaharlal Nehru4. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India

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  82. 132
    Which one of the following is the Official Mascot of the FIFA World Cup, 2018?

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  83. 133
    The Headquarters of the proposed National Sports University (as per the National Sports University Ordinance, 2018) will be set up in

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  84. 134
    Sentosa island, which was in news recently, is located in

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  85. 135
    India, in June 2018, asserted that any mega connectivity project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of the countries. The project referred to above is

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  86. 136
    Who among the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} a member of G7?

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  87. 137
    Who among the following leaders started the Indian Home Rule League?

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  88. 138
    Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by

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  89. 139
    The Nehru-Mahalanobis Strategy of Development was implemented for the first time by which one of the following Five-Year Plans?

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  90. 140
    Which one of the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

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  91. 141
    The word 'socialist' was inserted into the Preamble to the Constitution of India through which one of the following Amendment Acts?

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  92. 142
    The place of English East India Company settlement in Madras was known as

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  93. 143
    Which one of the following Indian States (other than Himalayan or NE States) ranked first in the Composite Water Management Index as per the report issued by the NITI Aayog in June 2018?

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  94. 144
    Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council?

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  95. 145
    Which one of the following is the theme of the World Blood Donor Day, 2018?

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  96. 146
    'Seva Bhoj Yojana', a scheme of the Government of India that seeks to reimburse Central share of CGST and IGST on Food/Prasad/Langar/Bhandara offered by religious institutions, is introduced recently by which one of the following Ministries?

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  97. 147
    Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018 for Culture and Community, is the founder of

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  98. 148
    Article 352 of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to

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  99. 149
    The Theosophical Society was led by

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  100. 150
    Which one of the following statements about Bipin Chandra Pal is correct?

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