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NDA 2024 (II), Paper II, General Ability Test question paper

150 questions · 600 marks · 150 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1.33 per wrong one

Every question in the order it was set, free to read. Tap an option to check it, or open the answer and worked solution. Answers open as you go; sign in free to keep opening them.

Sit it as a timed mock

English

50 questions

  1. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
    1
    All human beings are fallible [underlined: fallible]

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  2. 2
    His words were vague [underlined: vague]

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  3. 3
    She performed all her duties conscientiously [underlined: conscientiously]

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  4. 4
    These risks are incidental to the work of a firefighter [underlined: incidental]

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  5. 5
    She has always been disdainful of poor people [underlined: disdainful]

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  6. Directions : In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ________ of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, ________ plants and animals ________ to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. ________ wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ to adverse conditions, ________ other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many ________ under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they ________ for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant ________ lacks resistance to drought ________ and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
    6
    Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ________ of natural biota.

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  7. 7
    ________ plants and animals

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  8. 8
    plants and animals ________ to the rigours of natural selection

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  9. 9
    Only the fittest survive. ________ wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness

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  10. 10
    resistance to parasites, ________ to adverse conditions

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  11. 11
    tolerance to adverse conditions, ________ other aspects of vigour

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  12. 12
    populations grown for many ________

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  13. 13
    they ________ for production, not resilience

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  14. 14
    a high-producing plant ________ lacks resistance to drought

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  15. 15
    a high-producing plant that lacks resistance to drought ________ and the resistance to drought is ignored

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  16. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
    16
    Preeti suggests

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  17. 17
    We saw

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  18. 18
    Since you have been touring all day

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  19. 19
    His condition is serious, but

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  20. 20
    I hope the bus comes soon because

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  21. 21
    Someone

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  22. 22
    What would you do

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  23. 23
    If I were you

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  24. 24
    I wish

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  25. 25
    The efforts of the security services have not been quite

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  26. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    26
    A white lie

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  27. 27
    Bad blood

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  28. 28
    Count your blessings

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  29. 29
    Have the last laugh

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  30. 30
    Sit on the fence

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  31. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
    31
    P: good quality elementary education conforming Q: as a fundamental right of all children R: the Right to Education Act (RTE) mandates S: to the standards and norms specified in the Act

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  32. 32
    P: the conflicts and disputes in their mind Q: music not only relieves the burden R: on children and the young S: but also alleviates

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  33. 33
    P: but it is virtually covered by a dome-shaped Q: Antarctica is a continent R: nearly twice as large as Australia S: ice sheet nearly 2 miles thick

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  34. 34
    P: the global economic weight from the advanced economies Q: that there was a major shift in R: and Central Bank Governors, in recognition of the fact S: the G20 was formed in 1999, as a forum of Finance Ministers

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  35. 35
    P: aquaculture nation in the world and Q: India's products are exported to many nations R: fish producing and the second largest S: India is the third largest

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  36. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    36
    Adders [underlined] are the only poisonous snakes found across Britain

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  37. 37
    She spoke to him once since [underlined] he has been in town

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  38. 38
    I don't really want to go. Besides, it's too late now [underlined]

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  39. 39
    Look at that [underlined] man over there

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  40. 40
    The plane is ready for take-off [underlined]

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  41. Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only. We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires' disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
    41
    What according to the passage is the 'unwelcome form of the globalization'? 1. Globalization of the diseases 2. Elusive goal of globalization 3. History of fatal diseases 4. Selective use of antibiotics Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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  42. 42
    According to the passage, globalisation of health has become imperative due to

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  43. 43
    According to the passage, resurgent diseases are affected by : 1. Medical practices 2. Overuse of antibiotics 3. Emergence of new strains Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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  44. 44
    According to the passage, many new diseases are emerging due to change in land use because

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  45. 45
    What is the meaning of the word "epidemiology" in the passage ?

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  46. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    46
    Sages and seers have cautioned [underlined] that the path towards enlightenment is full of illusory traps

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  47. 47
    The officer reported the details of the mission in a monotonous [underlined] manner

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  48. 48
    There are many elusive [underlined] questions in philosophy

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  49. 49
    Cleaning this mess is a mammoth [underlined] task

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  50. 50
    The police department's image was tarnished [underlined] after the high-profile murder case

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General Knowledge

100 questions

  1. 51
    Which one of the following statements about lysosomes is NOT correct ?

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  2. 52
    Which of the following two cell organelles have their own genetic material ?

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  3. 53
    Which one among the following tissues help to connect two bones ?

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  4. 54
    Which one among the following is the source of energy in cells ?

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  5. 55
    In which one among the following the vegetative propagation takes place through Eye Buds ?

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  6. 56
    The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called

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  7. 57
    Which one among the following separation techniques is used for blood tests in diagnostic laboratories ?

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  8. 58
    Which one among the following elements is polyatomic ?

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  9. 59
    Which of the following anions has a valency of -3 ?

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  10. 60
    The mass of 0.5 mole of N2\text{N}_2 gas is

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  11. 61
    The chemical reaction 2AgCl(s)→2Ag(s)+Cl2(g)2\text{AgCl(s)} \to 2\text{Ag(s)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)} takes place

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  12. 62
    Which one among the following is commonly used as an 'anti-skinning agent' in paints ?

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  13. 63
    Two resistances of 5.0 Ω\Omega and 7.0 Ω\Omega are connected in series and the combination is connected in parallel with a resistance of 36.0 Ω\Omega. The equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors is

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  14. 64
    Shown in the figure are two hollow cubes C1 and C2 of negligible mass partially filled with liquids of densities ρ\rho1 and ρ\rho2 respectively, floating in water (density ρ\rhoW). The relationship between ρ\rho1, ρ\rho2 and ρ\rhoW is

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  15. 65
    An astronaut whose weight on the Earth is 600 N experiences weightlessness on International Space Station orbiting around the Earth. It means that

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  16. 66
    Which of the following statements give characteristics of contact forces ? 1. It appears between an object when it is in contact with some other object 2. It satisfies the third law of motion 3. It may appear between a pair of solid and fluid Select the answer using the code given below :

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  17. 67
    Which one among the following figures correctly represents the ray diagram ? (Consider the lens to be thin) (a) Biconvex lens with rays meeting at f on both sides (b) Lens with object at 2f, rays converging past lens (c) Lens with rays from beyond 2f (d) Lens with markers at 2f and f

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  18. 68
    Lightning is due to

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  19. 69
    In which one among the following situations, the bulb would glow the most ? (Consider all batteries are the same)

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  20. 70
    Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ? (a) Speed rises steeply then drops sharply (b) Speed rises linearly to peak then decreases linearly (c) Speed rises linearly to peak, symmetric triangle (d) Speed rises to rounded peak then decreases gradually to zero

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  21. 71
    Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class ? (a) Load at one end, fulcrum in middle, effort at other (b) Effort at one end, fulcrum in middle, load at other (c) Fulcrum at one end, load in middle, effort at other end (d) Fulcrum at one end, effort in middle, load at other end

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  22. 72
    For an electric circuit: 100 Ω\Omega branch with ammeter reading 3A, in parallel with 200 Ω\Omega and 300 Ω\Omega branches, total current I. The correct combination of voltage (V) and current (I) is

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  23. 73
    Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India ?

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  24. 74
    Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished ?

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  25. 75
    Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India ? 1. To increase production and offering opportunities to all for employment 2. To make assessment of all resources of the country Select the answer using the code given below :

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  26. 76
    Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct ? 1. The First and Ninth five year plans accorded high priority to agriculture 2. The Third Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar Model 3. Seventh Plan focused on food, work and productivity 4. The Ninth five year plan emphasized on massive investments in public sector Select the answer using the code given below :

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  27. 77
    Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India ? 1. Bombay Plan 2. Peoples Plan 3. Sarvodaya Plan 4. Gandhian Plan Select the answer using the code given below :

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  28. 78
    Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as

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  29. 79
    Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?

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  30. 80
    Which one among the following local winds is NOT related to Mediterranean Sea ?

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  31. 81
    Which one among the following is a landlocked water body ?

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  32. 82
    Which one among the following statements with reference to Benguela current is NOT correct ?

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  33. 83
    The lowest part of most bolsons is occupied by a landform called playa. Which category of landform formation does it represent ?

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  34. 84
    Which one among the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D in humans ?

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  35. 85
    Which one among the following combinations most appropriately represent the components of balanced diet ?

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  36. 86
    In which part or organ of human body cartilage is NOT found ?

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  37. 87
    Which part of nephron of the human kidney is responsible for filtration of blood for excretion ?

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  38. 88
    Organisms of which of the following phylum are called sponges ?

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  39. 89
    A point object is placed at the centre of curvature of a spherical concave mirror. Which one among the following would be the correct location of image formed ?

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  40. 90
    Which one among the following is correct for a person suffering from myopia ?

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  41. 91
    A vehicle starts from rest. In first t seconds it moves with acceleration 2 m/s2 and then in next 10 seconds with acceleration 5 m/s2. Total distance = 550 m. The value of time t is

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  42. 92
    A pumpkin weighs 7.5 N. On submerging completely in water, 3/4 L of water gets displaced. g = 10 m/s2. The correct value of density of the pumpkin is

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  43. 93
    An incandescent bulb converts 20% of power into light. Resistance = 200 Ω\Omega, current = 2 A. Bulb ON for 10 h, electricity rate = Rs.5/unit. The correct amount for money spent on producing light is

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  44. 94
    Which one of the following statements best defines the concept of heat ?

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  45. 95
    The masses of two planets are in the ratio of 1 : 7. The ratio between their diameters is 2 : 1. The ratio of forces which they exert on each other is

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  46. 96
    A car weighs 1000 kg moving at 72 km/h. Driver brakes; car stops in 0.2 s. The retarding force is

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  47. 97
    A ball of mass 320 g has 625 J potential energy when released from a height. The speed with which it will hit the ground is

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  48. 98
    Vehicle from rest: accelerates at 2 m/s22\,\text{m/s}^2 east for 10 s, stops, then accelerates at 42 m/s24\sqrt{2}\,\text{m/s}^2 south for 10 s. Net displacement from starting point is

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  49. 99
    Which one of the following statements about the Industrial Revolution is correct ?

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  50. 100
    The first cotton mill in British India which began production in 1856 was set up by

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  51. 101
    Consider the following statements about the Linguistic Reorganization of the States : 1. Gandhiji, in 1948, had argued for the reorganization of provinces on a linguistic basis 2. The Constituent Assembly recommended it to be incorporated in the Constitution of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  52. 102
    Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, in Tamilnadu, C Rajagopalachari led a salt march from

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  53. 103
    Acharya Vinoba Bhave received the first donation of land under the Bhoodan Movement at

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  54. 104
    Maize (makka) was introduced into India via

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  55. 105
    Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Passes and the Ranges in which they are located is/are correctly matched ? 1. Zoji La — Great Himalayas 2. Banihal Pass — Pir Panjal Range 3. Photu La — Ladakh Range 4. Khardung La — Karakoram Range Select the answer using the code given below :

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  56. 106
    Which one among the following statements with reference to the black cotton soils of India is NOT correct ?

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  57. 107
    Match List I with List II:
    List I (Hydroelectric Power Plant)List II (State)
    A. Doyang1. Arunachal Pradesh
    B. Gomuti2. Assam
    C. Kapili3. Tripura
    D. Ranganadi4. Nagaland
    Code :

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  58. 108
    Match List I with List II:
    List I (Tropical Cyclone)List II (Country)
    A. Hurricanes1. China
    B. Willy Willy2. Philippines
    C. Baguio3. Australia
    D. Typhoons4. USA
    Code :

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  59. 109
    Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system : 1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab 2. The Satluj is a classic example of an antecedent river 3. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus System Select the answer using the code given below :

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  60. 110
    Which one of the following is an example of both an igneous as well as a metamorphic rock ?

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  61. 111
    Which one of the following is correct ?

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  62. 112
    Which one among the following processes is NOT part of chemical weathering ?

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  63. 113
    What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom ?

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  64. 114
    At which temperature does liquid water show maximum density ?

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  65. 115
    Which one among the following has valency of 3 ?

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  66. 116
    Which one among the following is an example of oxidation reaction ?

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  67. 117
    Which one among the following fertilizers is a source of nitrogen ?

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  68. 118
    For Aluminium (Al) (atomic number : 13, mass number : 27), which one among the following statements is NOT correct ?

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  69. 119
    The elemental composition of diamond is

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  70. 120
    Which one among the following is an example of chemical change ?

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  71. 121
    Which one among the following is the correct focal length of a combination of lenses of power 2.5 D and -2.0 D ?

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  72. 122
    The AC mains domestic supply current in India changes direction in every

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  73. 123
    A block of mass 2.0 kg slides on a rough horizontal surface at 10 m/s and comes to rest after 20 m. Which one of the following could be the magnitude of the frictional force ?

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  74. 124
    Given below are four cases of heat transfer: 1. Ice is melting in a glass full of water 2. Water is boiling in an open container 3. A metal rod is heated in a furnace 4. A cup of coffee is allowed to cool on a table In which of the above cases, Newton's Law of Cooling is applicable ?

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  75. 125
    The figure shows two forces P (downward) and Q (upward) acting on a skydiver. Which one among the following statements is correct about the two forces ?

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  76. 126
    Vijayanagara rulers claimed that they were ruling on behalf of

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  77. 127
    Domingo Paes describes a king : 'Of medium height, and of fair complexion and good figure, rather fat than thin; he has on his face signs of smallpox'. Identify the king.

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  78. 128
    In which Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection are given ?

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  79. 129
    Consider the following statements : 1. The duties of the Attorney General of India are to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred to or assigned to him by the President of India 2. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary Law Officer of the country, who assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitor Generals of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  80. 130
    Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament ? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the answer using the code given below :

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  81. 131
    In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or without any recommendation, within the stipulated time of

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  82. 132
    Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct ? 1. Freedoms under this Article are not absolute 2. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of freedoms under this Article Select the answer using the code given below :

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  83. 133
    Which of the following is NOT a part of the five principles enshrined in the 'Panchsheel' agreement signed by India and China in 1954 ?

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  84. 134
    Freedom Fighter Kanaklata Barua sacrificed her life while participating in

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  85. 135
    Where is the Coriolis Effect the largest ?

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  86. 136
    In which among the following states in India, the Sun rays are never perpendicular ? 1. Bihar 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Manipur 4. Rajasthan Select the answer using the code given below :

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  87. 137
    Which of the following is/are east flowing rivers in India ? 1. Palar 2. Periyar 3. Pennar 4. Kalinadi Select the answer using the code given below :

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  88. 138
    Which of the following tributaries is/are correctly matched with the Deccan Rivers ? 1. Bhavani — Krishna 2. Kabini — Kaveri 3. Manjra — Godavari 4. Bhima — Mahanadi Select the answer using the code given below :

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  89. 139
    Which one of the following is found in appreciable amount in Laterite soil in India ?

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  90. 140
    Consider the following statements regarding River Brahmaputra : 1. It rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar 2. It takes a "U" turn near Namcha Barwa and enters India through a gorge Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  91. 141
    "Not me, but you" is the motto of which one of the following youth organizations/schemes ?

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  92. 142
    "Fitness ka dose, aadha ghanta roz" campaign, is associated with

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  93. 143
    Consider the following statements : 1. Kozhikode has been included in UNESCO's creative cities network as the 'City of Music' 2. Garba of Gujarat has been declared by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage 3. Gwalior has been included in UNESCO's creative cities network as the 'City of Literature' How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

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  94. 144
    ASEAN-India Millet Festival-2023, organized by Indian Mission to ASEAN, was held in which one of the following countries ?

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  95. 145
    Consider the following statements : 1. First Indian Military Heritage festival was inaugurated in October 2023 in Pune 2. First Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was flagged off in India in Bangalore 3. South Africa chaired the 15th BRICS Summit held in 2023 4. Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra was flagged off in 2023 from Jharkhand How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

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  96. 146
    Which of the following statements about 'ULLAS' scheme is/are NOT correct ? 1. It's a Centrally Sponsored scheme which aims at securing childhood for street children 2. It's a scheme aligned with National Education Policy-2020 which aims at empowering adults aged 15 or above who could not get due schooling Select the answer using the code given below :

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  97. 147
    Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ?

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  98. 148
    In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a country to construct a 20 feet Bailey bridge. Identify the country.

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  99. 149
    Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA ?

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  100. 150
    Consider the following statements : 1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Logistics Performance Index Report-2023 2. Global Maritime India Summit-2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam 3. 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047' was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023 How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

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