PYQ Vault

NDA 2026 (I), Paper II, General Ability Test question paper

150 questions · 600 marks · 150 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1.33 per wrong one

Every question in the order it was set, free to read. Tap an option to check it, or open the answer and worked solution. Answers open as you go; sign in free to keep opening them.

Sit it as a timed mock

English

50 questions

  1. Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    1
    The 'Jataka Tales' present moral narratives in the form of allegories.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  2. 2
    He was upbraided for appearing in court in a state of inebriation.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  3. 3
    The obstreperous behavior of the students inside the classroom drew the attention of the Principal.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  4. 4
    These were based primarily in Himachal Pradesh, where the treks were as gruelling as the terrain.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  5. 5
    I think they would wish for some more adornment around the school campus for the special function.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  6. 6
    The travel company tried to identify destinations that were off the beaten track.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  7. 7
    Women gather in the community park on a regular basis to chant prayers for the benefit of all.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  8. 8
    The HR Manager was able to utilize the specific skills of each member of the team assembled for the project.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  9. 9
    The oppressive pollution was noticed to have abated after the unseasonal rainfall.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  10. 10
    Often, the context and structure of an ambiguous statement is difficult to discern.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  11. Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 20): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    11
    She had a ruddy, open face and an oddly guileless manner.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  12. 12
    He used to be known among his colleagues for his righteousness.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  13. 13
    He found the musical rendition by the septuagenarian maestro to be listless.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  14. 14
    The official accused of espionage was found to be disingenuous.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  15. 15
    The young are easily excitable when presented with strong emotional triggers.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  16. 16
    Our professor was perplexed by the answers we wrote in the examination.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  17. 17
    Effective governance seeks to optimize public resource allocation.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  18. 18
    The student's striking audaciousness disturbed long-standing social hierarchies on campus.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  19. 19
    There are four concurrent handloom fairs around the city.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  20. 20
    Lucidity is a desired quality in effective communication.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  21. Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 25): Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternatives to each. Select the most appropriate alternative which gives the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    21
    'Nuts and bolts'

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  22. 22
    'Hat in hand'

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  23. 23
    'Straight from the horse's mouth'

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  24. 24
    'Bite off more than you can chew'

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  25. 25
    'A piece of cake'

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  26. Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30): Each of the following sentences has word/words underlined. Read the sentence carefully and identify which word class the underlined word/words belongs/belong to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    26
    He claimed his half share of the booty.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  27. 27
    Swimming is a healthy exercise.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  28. 28
    I have told you now and again that you must not read such trash.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  29. 29
    He succeeded by dint of perseverance and sheer hard work.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  30. 30
    I need you to return those books I lent you last month.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  31. Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35): Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    31
    I will not pay for the goods

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  32. 32
    I did not buy it

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  33. 33
    I sent her a bouquet of orchids

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  34. 34
    You must stay inside

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  35. 35
    We must wait

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  36. Directions (Q. Nos. 36 to 40): The following items have four sentences, one of which is correct. Select the correct sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    36
    Which is the correct sentence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  37. 37
    Which is the correct sentence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  38. 38
    Which is the correct sentence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  39. 39
    Which is the correct sentence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  40. 40
    Which is the correct sentence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  41. Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45): Each item in this section has a sentence with four underlined parts labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    41
    The project staff are working on the weekend so as not to delay the project any further.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  42. 42
    When I saw Arnab he said he had taken his driving test yesterday.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  43. 43
    Of all the players it was Ramesh who plan his tactics with utmost care.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  44. 44
    Many people in India are still not aware of India's indigenous fabrics that reflects the rich heritage of craftmanship.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  45. 45
    Meaningful ecological affects of the handloom sector can be optimized through recycling practices.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  46. 46
    Read the following pairs: Active Voice | Passive Voice I. They laughed at his warnings and objected to all his proposals. | His warnings were laughed at and his proposals were objected to. II. Do not insult the weak. | You are advised to not insult the weak. Identify the pair(s) wherein the Passive Voice is correctly stated.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  47. 47
    Read the following pairs: Direct Speech | Indirect Speech I. The policeman said to us, "Where are you going?" | The policeman asked where were we going. II. "Call the first witness", said the Judge. | The Judge said them to call the witness first. Identify the pair(s) wherein the Indirect Speech is correctly stated.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  48. 48
    Read the following pairs: Idiom/Phrase | Meaning I. Have one foot in the grave | To be in the last stage of life II. Get your feet wet | Establish yourself securely in an establishment III. Follow suit | Correctly conform to another's action Identify the pair(s) wherein the meaning is correctly stated.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  49. 49
    Read the following pairs: Group of words | One-word substitution I. Decayed with usually a very bad or disgusting smell | Putrid II. Humorous in a clever and often ironic way | Wry III. In a state of tremulous excitement | Aflutter Identify the pairs wherein the one-word substitution is correctly stated.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  50. 50
    Fill in the blanks (X, Y): I. I spent X (less/the least) money on clothes in the whole family. II. The people who work the hardest make Y (a few/the fewest) mistakes. Identify the words/phrases.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

General Knowledge

100 questions

  1. 51
    A pendulum of length LL oscillates with an angular amplitude of θ=60°\theta = 60° and time period TT. Let T0=2πLgT_0 = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}} be the time period for small angle oscillations. If air resistance is negligibly small and the string remains straight, then which one of the following is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  2. 52
    Two forces of equal magnitude simultaneously act at a point. It is observed that the resultant force is equal in magnitude to the individual forces. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The angle between one of the individual forces and the resultant force is π/3\pi/3. II. The angle between the individual forces is 2π/32\pi/3. Select the answer using the code given below.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  3. 53
    A solid of mass mm has temperature-dependent specific heat C(T)=C0+αTC(T) = C_0 + \alpha T, where C0C_0 and α\alpha are constants. The solid is heated from T1T_1 to T2T_2. Which one of the following is the correct expression for heat QQ?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  4. 54
    In a certain process, PV2=constantPV^2 = \text{constant} for an ideal gas. If initial temperature is T1T_1, final temperature T2T_2, initial volume V1V_1, final volume V2V_2, then which one is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  5. 55
    For an ideal gas, a process is described by P=kTP = kT, where kk is a constant. If the molar heat capacity for this process is CC, then which one of the following is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  6. 56
    For an object in a gravitational field, the gravitational potential is the same at two points AA and BB, but the gravitational field is not the same at these two points. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  7. 57
    The position vector of a particle is given by r⃗=3t2i^+2tj^+5k^\vec{r} = \sqrt{3}t^2\hat{i} + \sqrt{2}t\hat{j} + \sqrt{5}\hat{k}. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  8. 58
    A ball is dropped from rest from height hh in frame SS. Frame S′S' moves upwards with speed uu. In S′S', ball has initial downward speed vv. Pertaining to the change in kinetic energy (ΔK\Delta K) from release to just before hitting the ground as measured in SS and S′S' separately, which one is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  9. 59
    A floating body is in stable state. Which one of the following is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  10. 60
    A constant power machine pulls a block on a smooth horizontal surface. Which one correctly describes the relation between speed (v)(v) and time (t)(t)?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  11. 61
    A 5 g piece of ice at −20 °C-20\,°C is put into mm kg of water at 30 °C30\,°C. The final temperature is 0 °C0\,°C in liquid phase. What is the value of mm in kg?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  12. 62
    The speed of sound in a large ideal gas container is xx. When pressure is doubled at constant temperature, speed becomes yy. What is x/yx/y?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  13. 63
    A person jumps from a height on soft sand. Which one is the correct reason for less likely injury?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  14. 64
    An object is placed far beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror and starts accelerating towards the mirror. Which one is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  15. 65
    A particle moves from XX to YY under a force field. The work done depends only on the initial and final speeds. Which one is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  16. 66
    One year at a planet is 8 times as large as compared to one year at Earth. Which one is correct about the planet's orbit?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  17. 67
    A lightning rod with sharp tip reduces damage risk. Which is the primary reason?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  18. 68
    A periscope uses two plane mirrors at 45°. If the tube is filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index 1.5, which one is correct regarding the image?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  19. 69
    A mirror always forms the image between the pole and the focus, irrespective of object location. Which is the nature of the mirror?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  20. 70
    What is the upward force acting on a skydiver of mass 60 kg falling at a uniform speed of 2 m/s?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  21. 71
    With respect to electromagnetic waves, the human eye is sensitive to

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  22. 72
    Three wires each of length LL, area AA and resistivity ρ\rho are connected (two in parallel X to Y, one Y to Z). A single wire of same resistivity replaces them without changing resistance X to Z. If new wire has length L1L_1 and area A1A_1, which is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  23. 73
    A light ray falls on a face of an equilateral glass prism as shown (ray at 60° to the face normal). Which diagram correctly shows the complete path of the ray through the glass prism?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  24. 74
    A glass slab (refractive index 1.5) is cut as parallelogram ABCD with BC polished as a reflector. Light is incident at AB from inside at π/3\pi/3. Which angle ABC=θABC = \theta causes reflected light to retrace its path?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  25. 75
    The force-time (F-t) graph of a 10 kg object shows a trapezoid: F rises linearly to 20 N at t=5 s, constant 20 N from t=5 to t=20 s, drops to 0 at t=25 s. What is the final speed of the object?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  26. 76
    If xx is the number of electrons and yy is the number of nucleons in 1632S2−^{32}_{16}S^{2-}, then which one is correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  27. 77
    Which one of the following forms of carbon is thermodynamically most stable?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  28. 78
    Consider the following statements: I. A colloid and a suspension are heterogeneous mixtures. II. Colloids can be separated from the mixture by the process of centrifugation. III. Particles of colloids and suspensions can be seen by naked eye. IV. The aqueous solution of copper sulphate does not show Tyndall effect; however, the mixture of milk and water shows Tyndall effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  29. 79
    A non-volatile solid solute may be separated from a solution by which of the following processes? I. Evaporation II. Crystallization

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  30. 80
    Which of the following are oxidation reactions? I. Rusting of iron II. Burning of fuel III. Rancidity of oils and fats IV. Browning of fruits

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  31. 81
    Consider the following statement: "Acids are substances that dissociate in water to give hydrogen ions H+ (aq), and bases are substances that produce hydroxyl ions OH- (aq)." The above statement is based on which one of the following concepts?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  32. 82
    Superphosphate of lime - a phosphate fertilizer - is obtained by the reaction of

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  33. 83
    1.7 g of AgNO3\text{AgNO}_3 dissolved in 100 g water + 0.585 g NaCl\text{NaCl} in 100 g water gives 1.435 g AgCl\text{AgCl} + 0.85 g NaNO3\text{NaNO}_3. Which law of chemical combination is shown?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  34. 84
    Which statements are correct with regard to Nitrolim? I. Prepared by heating calcium carbide with nitrogen. II. Decomposes into ammonia in soil. III. It is an NPK fertilizer. IV. It is an organic fertilizer.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  35. 85
    Consider the following pairs: I. Pigment : TiO2\text{TiO}_2 II. Drier : Turpentine III. Thinner : Naphthenates IV. Antiskinning agent : Polyhydroxy phenol How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  36. 86
    Consider the following statements: I. Pine oil is used as antifoaming agent in emulsion paints. II. Protective colloids are used to decrease stability of emulsion paints. III. Driers having oxidizable oils are added to emulsion paints to accelerate drying. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  37. 87
    Consider the following: I. AlCl3\text{AlCl}_3 II. NH3\text{NH}_3 III. BF3\text{BF}_3 IV. FeCl3\text{FeCl}_3 How many of the above are Lewis acids?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  38. 88
    Consider the following statements: I. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. II. Catenation and isomerism in carbon explain the large number of organic compounds. III. Carbon dioxide is acidic but carbon monoxide is a neutral molecule. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  39. 89
    Which of the following is/are physical test(s) employed for manufacture of paper? I. Mechanical and strength properties II. Surface properties III. Optical properties IV. Permeability to fluids

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  40. 90
    Consider the following reaction-property pairs: I. Fe+2HCl→FeCl2+H2\text{Fe} + 2\text{HCl} \to \text{FeCl}_2 + \text{H}_2 | Fe is reductant II. Zn+CuSO4→ZnSO4+Cu\text{Zn} + \text{CuSO}_4 \to \text{ZnSO}_4 + \text{Cu} | Cu is being reduced III. Br2+2I−→2Br−+I2\text{Br}_2 + 2\text{I}^- \to 2\text{Br}^- + \text{I}_2 | Br2\text{Br}_2 is reductant IV. CH4+2O2→CO2+2H2O\text{CH}_4 + 2\text{O}_2 \to \text{CO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} | C atom in CH4\text{CH}_4 is oxidized Which pairs are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  41. 91
    Which properties of alveoli are helpful in gaseous exchange? I. The epithelial lining of alveoli is very thin. II. Elastic fibres are present in alveolar wall. III. Wall of alveoli is surrounded by many blood capillaries.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  42. 92
    In which one of the following groups of animals, oestrus cycle is not\textbf{\text{not}} observed?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  43. 93
    Which one of the following tissues in plants is usually without protoplast and regarded as dead cells?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  44. 94
    In which cell does the first meiotic cell division take place during spermatogenesis?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  45. 95
    Consider the following statements: I. All cells possess cell wall. II. All cells have ribosomes present inside. III. All cells have well-organized nucleus. IV. All cells have linear DNA molecules present in them. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  46. 96
    Which part of the plant or flower contributes in the form of false fruit like apple?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  47. 97
    In which one of the following parts, the process of gaseous exchange during respiration does not\textbf{\text{not}} take place?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  48. 98
    Which one of the following parts of an ovule possesses reserve food?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  49. 99
    Which one of the following respiratory volumes of human lung is the lowest?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  50. 100
    Which one of the following valves guards the opening between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  51. 101
    Which one is not\textbf{\text{not}} a strategy in the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme of India?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  52. 102
    Consider the following statements about Kamarajar Port: I. It is an example of corporatized public company. II. It was earlier known as Ennore Port. III. It is a natural port. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  53. 103
    Consider the following statements: I. Earthquake waves are of two types: body waves and surface waves. II. The body waves interact with surface rocks and generate surface waves. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  54. 104
    Consider the following statements: I. The continental crust is thinner under fold mountains. II. The mean thickness of ocean crust is 30 km. III. The Earth's crust is brittle in nature. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  55. 105
    Which of the following are associated with composite volcanoes? I. They result in explosive eruptions. II. They eject pyroclastic materials. III. Pyroclastic materials and ashes accumulate near the vent, forming layers.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  56. 106
    Loose sediments are transformed into sedimentary rocks by the process of

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  57. 107
    Consider the following statements about temperature inversion: I. This happens when normal lapse rate gets inverted. II. Winter nights with cloudy skies are conducive for temperature inversion. III. Polar areas experience inversion throughout the year. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  58. 108
    Consider the following statements regarding extratropical cyclones: I. They usually develop in the mid and high latitudes. II. They affect a much larger area as compared to tropical cyclone. III. They move from east to west. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  59. 109
    Which one of the following receives average annual rainfall of below 50 cm in India, indicating highest inadequacy?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  60. 110
    As per Land Revenue Records of India, 'a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than 5 years' is called

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  61. 111
    Consider the following pairs: Types of Chemical Weathering | Characteristics I. Solution | Results in leaching of minerals II. Carbonation | Helps in breaking down feldspars III. Hydration | Causes an increase in the volume of rocks IV. Oxidation | Changes the colour of rocks How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  62. 112
    Quartzite is metamorphosed from which one of the following rocks?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  63. 113
    Consider the following statements: I. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. II. In P waves, particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation; in S waves, they vibrate at right angles to propagation. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  64. 114
    Consider the following statements regarding hypocentre: I. It is the point where the energy is released and is called the focus of an earthquake. II. It is the point where the earthquake starts and may be many kilometres deep within the Earth. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  65. 115
    Consider the following critical minerals: I. Neodymium II. Tellurium III. Dysprosium IV. Gallium Which are not\textbf{\text{not}} used for the production of photovoltaic cells in solar panels?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  66. 116
    Which one of the following winds is responsible for wildfires in Southern California?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  67. 117
    Which one of the following is not\textbf{\text{not}} a pass of Arunachal Pradesh?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  68. 118
    Mount Ibu, which recently erupted in Indonesia, is a

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  69. 119
    Consider the following statements about terrestrial planets: I. Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are terrestrial planets having low densities as compared to other planets. II. They lie between the Sun and the belt of asteroids. III. Their lower gravity can hold the escaping gases. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  70. 120
    Consider the following pairs: Layers of Atmosphere | Characteristics I. Troposphere | Absorbs ultraviolet radiation II. Stratosphere | Changes in weather and climate III. Mesosphere | Reflects radio waves back to the Earth How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  71. 121
    Consider the following pairs: Books | Authors I. Dayabhaga | Jimutavahana II. Prithviraj Raso | Chandbardai III. Lilavati | Bhaskaracharya IV. Mitakshara | Vijnaneshvara How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  72. 122
    Arrange in chronological order from earliest to recent: I. British East India Company formed II. Magellan circumnavigated the globe III. Dutch East India Company formed IV. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut/Kozhikode

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  73. 123
    Consider the following pairs: Inventions | Inventors I. Flying shuttle loom | John Kay II. Water frame | James Hargreaves III. Spinning jenny | Richard Arkwright How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  74. 124
    Consider the following statements about Rowlatt Act 1919: I. Gandhiji launched a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919. II. The Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite opposition of Indian members. III. The Act gave the Government enormous powers to repress political activities. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  75. 125
    Consider the following statements about Industrial Revolution in Britain: I. There was availability of banks which could loan money to set up industries. II. There was a good transport network. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  76. 126
    Consider the following statements about the Russian Revolution: I. 'Bloody Sunday' started the events known as the 1905 Revolution. II. Lawyers, doctors, engineers established the Union of Unions and demanded a Constituent Assembly. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  77. 127
    Who among the following advocated the construction of initial railways in India for facilitating army movement?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  78. 128
    The large well supplying water to the Great Bath of Mohenjo-daro was located

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  79. 129
    For visiting famous Jain pilgrimage sites, which towns will you travel to? I. Moodabidri II. Madurai III. Sonagiri

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  80. 130
    Consider the following statements about bead production in Harappan towns: I. Materials used included carnelian, quartz and steatite. II. The beads were cylindrical, barrel-shaped and disc-shaped. III. Specialized stone drills were used for making holes. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  81. 131
    Consider the following statements: I. The Second Five-Year Plan sought to promote development establishing socialistic pattern of society in India. II. Between 1966 and 1969, three Annual Plans were formulated. III. The Ninth Five-Year Plan could not take off at its stipulated time in the 60th year of India's Independence. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  82. 132
    Consider the following statements about CAG of India: I. The CAG shall be appointed by the President of India. II. The CAG is not eligible for further office under GoI after he has ceased to hold his office. III. The reports of the CAG shall be submitted to the Prime Minister who shall cause them to be laid before the House of the People. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  83. 133
    Consider the following offices: I. The Vice President of India II. The Governors within their respective States III. The Prime Minister of India IV. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Which option represents the correct order in the Table of Precedence?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  84. 134
    Consider the following pairs: I. Part IX A : The Municipalities II. Part IX B : The Cooperative Societies III. Part X : Relations between the Union and States IV. Part XII : Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits How many are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  85. 135
    Consider the following pairs: I. Goal 1 : End poverty in all forms everywhere II. Goal 2 : Ensure healthy lives III. Goal 3 : Ensure quality education IV. Goal 4 : Achieve gender equality How many pairs are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  86. 136
    Consider the following statements: I. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. II. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject a Money Bill but can suggest amendment(s). Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  87. 137
    Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India mentions that the Speaker has the power to adjourn both the Houses sine die. II. On prorogation, it is only the Speaker who can summon the Houses. Which are correct?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  88. 138
    Consider the following pairs: UN Peacekeeping Operations | Countries I. UNMOGIP | India and Pakistan II. UNFICYP | Cyprus III. UNMIK | Kosovo IV. UNTSO | Haiti How many are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  89. 139
    Consider the following pairs: High Courts | Territorial Jurisdictions I. Calcutta High Court | Lakshadweep II. Madras High Court | Puducherry III. Gauhati High Court | Manipur IV. Kerala High Court | Andaman and Nicobar Islands How many are correctly matched?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  90. 140
    As per Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  91. 141
    With reference to defence cooperation between India and Russia, which statements are correct? I. BrahMos Cruise Missile system is jointly developed by India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM). II. The production site of IRRPL joint venture is in Korwa, Madhya Pradesh under 'Atmanirbhar Bharat'.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  92. 142
    Which one among the following Departments is not\textbf{\text{not}} under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  93. 143
    The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is set up by the

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  94. 144
    Which one amongst the following cities has been designated as the UNESCO Creative City of Gastronomy in 2025?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  95. 145
    PM MITRA Parks relate to which one of the following industries?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  96. 146
    Which one of the following countries became the 11th member of ASEAN in 2025?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  97. 147
    Who among the following is the winner of the 2024-2025 Ranji Trophy?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  98. 148
    Choose the correct set of cities in descending order (Degree of Urbanization 2025) in terms of population.

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  99. 149
    Consider the following countries: I. Haiti II. Philippines III. Nicaragua IV. India According to Climate Risk Index 2026, which were affected by recurring extreme events during 1995-2024?

    Tap an option to check your answer.

  100. 150
    Match List-I (Rescue Operations by Government of India) with List-II (Countries): A. Operation Kaveri | I. Israel B. Operation Indravati | II. Haiti C. Operation Ajay | III. Ukraine D. Operation Ganga | IV. Sudan Code:

    Tap an option to check your answer.

Want the real exam feel? Sit this paper with a 150-minute timer and get your score straight away.

Sit it as a timed mock