PYQ Vault

NDA 2026 (II), Paper II, General Ability Test question paper

150 questions · 600 marks · 150 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1.33 per wrong one

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Sit it as a timed mock

English

50 questions

  1. Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    1
    During the trial, the witness's deposition was equivocal.

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  2. 2
    The professor is known for his characteristic reticence.

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  3. 3
    Observers noted the officials' increasingly capricious approach to administrative reforms.

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  4. 4
    The novel presents an idealistic view of the ongoing political reform.

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  5. 5
    The speaker's tone became increasingly caustic during the debate.

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  6. 6
    The note drew attention to the fallacious assumptions underlying the proposals.

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  7. 7
    The activist was sceptical with regard to the antecedents of the newly discovered documents.

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  8. 8
    The panel found the conclusion somewhat speculative.

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  9. 9
    After the mishap, the mood was sombre among the survivors.

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  10. 10
    He is a professional artist.

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  11. Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    11
    The controversial policy received the committee's imprimatur.

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  12. 12
    The archaeologist was fascinated by the annular design of the ancient monument.

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  13. 13
    The nobility is not known for its munificence.

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  14. 14
    The goods kept in the storage facility were declared to be contraband.

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  15. 15
    The judge ruled on the egregious violations of human rights by the authorities.

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  16. Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20): Given below are some foreign phrases followed by four alternatives to each. Select the most appropriate alternative which provides the correct meaning of the foreign phrase used in English and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    16
    Ipso facto

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  17. 17
    Via media

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  18. 18
    Quid pro quo

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  19. 19
    A posteriori

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  20. 20
    Modus operandi

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  21. Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 25): Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternatives to each. Select the most appropriate alternative which provides the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    21
    'Burn your bridges'

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  22. 22
    'Make no bones about something'

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  23. 23
    'A blot on the landscape'

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  24. 24
    'A bone of contention'

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  25. 25
    'Pour oil on troubled waters'

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  26. Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30): Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and identify which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    26
    Despite the heavy rain, the match continued as scheduled.

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  27. 27
    He gave both candidates an equal opportunity to present their case.

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  28. 28
    The old woman sat on the bench, knitting in silence.

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  29. 29
    The injured soldier crawled forward in spite of debilitating pain.

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  30. 30
    The results were beyond everyone's expectation.

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  31. Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35): Reorder the PQRS set to create the most appropriate meaningful sentence. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    31
    The findings were P : that had long been accepted Q : because they fundamentally challenged the assumptions R : met with considerable resistance at first S : by the mainstream scientific community The proper sequencing should be :

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  32. 32
    It is often argued that P : are not the result of innate talent alone Q : but rather the product of R : extraordinary achievements S : sustained effort and deliberate practice The proper sequencing should be :

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  33. 33
    The historian noted that P : had been systematically erased Q : the memory of certain communities R : and replaced with a sanitized narrative S : from the official records of the colonial period The proper sequencing should be :

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  34. 34
    Critics have long maintained that P : literature's true power lies in its Q : assumptions and not in the mere R : ability to disturb comfortable S : reproduction of social reality The proper sequencing should be :

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  35. 35
    The movie P : it was hardly possible Q : were so humorous that R : to keep a straight face S : had many scenes which The proper sequencing should be :

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  36. Directions (Q. Nos. 36 to 40): The following items have four sentences, one of which is grammatically correct. Select the most appropriate correct sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    36
    Which is the correct sentence?

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  37. 37
    Which is the correct sentence?

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  38. 38
    Which is the correct sentence?

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  39. 39
    Which is the correct sentence?

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  40. 40
    Which is the correct sentence?

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  41. 41
    A sentence is given in three parts (a), (b) and (c). Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark your option (d). Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  42. 42
    A sentence is given in three parts (a), (b) and (c). Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark your option (d). Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  43. 43
    Read the following pairs :
    Active VoicePassive Voice
    I. These grapes taste sour.These grapes are sour when they are tasted.
    II. Forget the past.Let the past be forgotten.
    Identify the pair(s) wherein the Passive Voice is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  44. 44
    Read the following pairs :
    Active VoicePassive Voice
    I. They asked me my name.My name was asked by them.
    II. They found him guilty.He found them guilty.
    Identify the pair(s) wherein the Passive Voice is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  45. 45
    Read the following pairs :
    Direct SpeechIndirect Speech
    I. He said, "Bravo! You have written the best answer."He applauded him saying that he had written the best answer.
    II. "The sun rises in the East," said the teacher.The teacher said that the sun rose in the East.
    Identify the pair(s) wherein the Indirect Speech is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  46. 46
    Read the following pairs :
    Direct SpeechIndirect Speech
    I. He said to him, "Wait here until I return."He ordered him to wait here until he returned.
    II. He said, "Alas! I am undone."He exclaimed sadly that he was undone.
    Identify the pair(s) wherein the Indirect Speech is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  47. 47
    Read the following pairs :
    Group of wordsOne-word substitution
    I. One who studies handwritingGraphologist
    II. One who draws mapsCartographer
    III. One who studies flagsVexillologist
    Identify the pairs wherein the one word substitution is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  48. 48
    Read the following pairs :
    Group of wordsOne-word substitution
    I. One who knows everythingOmnipotent
    II. One who is all powerfulOmniscient
    III. One who abandons religious faithApostate
    Identify the pair(s) wherein the one word substitution is correctly stated and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

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  49. 49
    Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate phrasal verb and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. The car tended to ________ every time the rains decided to ________.

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  50. 50
    Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate phrasal verb and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. He was eager to ________ after having resigned his position, but was advised to ________ his next move given the prevailing market situation.

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General Knowledge

100 questions

  1. 51
    A bicycle racing track is a level circular road of radius 10 m. Three cyclists P, Q and R with identical cycles are cycling on the track with speeds 2 m/s, 3 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.10.1, then which cyclist will slip ? (Take g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2)

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  2. 52
    The bob of a simple pendulum is displaced from its mean position and then released from rest 0.200.20 m above its mean position. What is the speed of the bob as it passes through the mean position ? (Take g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2)

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  3. 53
    A tennis ball of mass 350 g is thrown vertically upwards at a speed of 4 m/s. If M is the maximum gravitational potential energy of the ball and H is the maximum height it reaches, then which one of the following is correct ? (Take g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2)

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  4. 54
    Which of the following is correct regarding the total internal reflection at the interface between two different optical media ?

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  5. 55
    Consider the following statements : I. The weight of an object is the same everywhere on the surface of the Earth, but its inertial mass could be different. II. The inertial mass and gravitational mass of an object are proportional and the proportionality constant is the same everywhere. III. The inertial mass and weight of an object are the same at different places on Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  6. 56
    Consider the following : I. Gravitational field due to a spherical body II. Electrostatic field due to a point charge III. Strong nuclear force field due to a proton IV. Magnetic field due to a bar magnet How many of the above follow the inverse square law ?

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  7. 57
    While pouring water slowly from a jug, a general observation is that a water layer usually flows along the side of the jug. Which property of water among the following is responsible for this phenomenon ?

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  8. 58
    A fish is at a depth dd in water of refractive index 4/34/3. If a transparent slab of refractive index 3/23/2 and thickness d/2d/2 is placed on the surface of water, then which one of the following is the apparent depth of the fish as observed by an observer in air ?

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  9. 59
    A particle of mass mm moves along x-direction under the force F(x)=F0(1−xL)F(x) = F_0\left(1 - \frac{x}{L}\right) for 0≤x≤L0 \le x \le L. If the particle starts from rest at x=0x = 0, then what is the speed (v)(v) of the particle at x=Lx = L ?

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  10. 60
    A narrow tunnel passes through the centre of a planet of radius RR and uniform mass density ρ\rho. A particle is released into the tunnel. What is the angular frequency of oscillation of the particle (ω)(\omega) equal to ? (Symbols carry their usual meaning)

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  11. 61
    On a rainy day, rain drops fall vertically with speed v. An observer is moving towards east with speed v, while another observer moves towards north with the same speed v. What is the angle between apparent rain directions observed by them ?

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  12. 62
    What is the minimum horizontal speed given to the bob of a simple pendulum of length 50 cm so that it describes a complete circle ? (Take g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2)

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  13. 63
    Two conducting wires made of the same material have lengths L and 1.21.2 L. If the volume of the longer wire is half that of the shorter wire, then what is the electric resistance of the longer wire in comparison with the shorter wire ?

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  14. 64
    A biconvex lens is made of a material of refractive index 2 such that the ratio of the radii of curvature of its two faces is 1 : 2. A point source in air is placed on the principal axis of this lens at a distance u from the lens. Which one of the following is correct if the image is formed exactly at the same distance as that of the point source ? (where R is the radius of curvature of the first face)

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  15. 65
    In a carrom game, a striker of mass 15 g hits a coin of mass 5 g head on and the coin moves with a speed of 0.360.36 m/s. If the time of contact between the striker and the coin is 3 milliseconds, then what is the average force applied by the striker on the coin ?

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  16. 66
    A hollow prism is filled with water of refractive index 1.341.34 and white light is incident on the prism. The white light is assumed to have wavelengths ranging from 4020 A˚4020\ \text{Å} to 6700 A˚6700\ \text{Å}. What is the corresponding wavelength range in water ?

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  17. 67
    A heating filament and an ideal resistor of fixed value are connected in series with a DC voltage source. After some time, the filament has reached its operating point so that the current in the circuit is steady. Which one of the following is correct ?

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  18. 68
    Two astronauts X and Y float in deep space far from external forces. Initially, they are at rest relative to one another. X throws a tool towards Y. Consider the two astronauts and the tool as one system. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

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  19. 69
    A uniform rope hangs symmetrically over a smooth pulley. One end of the rope is given a slight mass, making that side slightly heavier. Which one of the following is correct ?

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  20. 70
    An insulating container contains 250 g of water at 20∘C20^\circ\text{C}. Steam at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C} is passed through it, heating it up to 25∘C25^\circ\text{C}. During this process, part of the steam also gets condensed, raising the mass of water to 252 g. If the specific heat of water is 1 Cal g−1 ∘C−11\ \text{Cal g}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}, then what is the value of the latent heat of steam ?

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  21. 71
    Three parallel glass slabs of refractive indices 1.51.5, 3\sqrt{3} and 1.51.5 respectively have widths 2 mm, 1 mm and 4 mm. The combination is in air. Light is incident at the first slab at an angle of incidence π/3\pi/3. What is the angle with respect to the normal at which the light will emerge from the final surface ?

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  22. 72
    Consider three wires X, Y and Z of the same length such that the ratio of their conductivities is 1 : 2 : 3. Further, the cross-sectional area of wire Z is twice that of Y and the resistance of X is equal to the resistance of Z. What is the ratio of the resistance of Y to that of X ?

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  23. 73
    Two point charges of 4 C and 16 C are kept at a distance of 0.18 m. A third point charge of 1 C is kept between them such that the potential energy of the system is minimum. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the 1 C charge ?

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  24. 74
    Consider the following statements in respect of sound waves : I. The speed of sound waves decreases with an increase in temperature if the atmospheric pressure remains the same. II. The speed of sound waves increases with increasing humidity if the atmospheric pressure remains the same. III. The speed of sound waves is not affected by a change in atmospheric pressure, provided the temperature is kept constant. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  25. 75
    Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Marine animals remain alive in winter and move near the bottom of lakes despite frozen water on the surface. Statement-II : The density of water is maximum at 4∘C4^\circ\text{C} and water at the bottom of lakes remains warm in winter. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

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  26. 76
    Consider the following statements regarding oxidation numbers : I. The oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides and superoxides is assigned as −1-1 and −1/2-1/2 respectively. II. In all its compounds, fluorine has an oxidation number of −1-1. III. In a reduction half-reaction, the oxidation number of the reductant decreases. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  27. 77
    Consider the following statements regarding the properties of hydrogen and water : I. Tritium, the isotope of hydrogen, is radioactive and emits low energy alpha particles. II. In the gas phase, the structure of water is linear. III. The basic principle of a hydrogen economy is the transportation and storage of energy in the form of liquid or gaseous molecular hydrogen. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

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  28. 78
    Consider the following statements regarding nitrogen : I. Nitrogen contains a triple bond. II. Nitrogen is a triatomic gas. III. Forces acting between nitrogen molecules are weak van der Waals forces. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  29. 79
    In a dry test tube, 2 mL of HCl (0.1 N) is taken. To this, 4 mL of NaOH (0.1 N) is added. The solution is stirred well, followed by the addition of 2 drops of phenolphthalein. What will be the colour of the solution ?

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  30. 80
    Consider the following statements I. Zinc metal, when treated with both HCl (aq.) and NaOH (aq.) separately, produces molecular hydrogen. II. An aqueous copper sulphate solution cannot be kept in a zinc vessel. III. Lemon, tamarind and tomato are natural sources of citric acid, oxalic acid and tartaric acid, respectively. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  31. 81
    Consider the following statements : I. A solution of iodine in ethanol known as 'tincture of iodine' is a heterogeneous mixture. II. A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture and its particles scatter a beam of light passing through it, making its path visible. III. A colloidal solution, although it appears homogeneous, is a heterogeneous mixture. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  32. 82
    Consider the following statements : I. A 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide is marketed as '10 volume' H2O2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2. II. In the compound copper sulphate pentahydrate, all the five water molecules are hydrogen bonded. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  33. 83
    Consider the following statements : I. The leaves of nettle, a herbaceous plant, cause painful stings when touched accidentally because of the secretion of formic acid. II. When gypsum is heated at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C}, it forms calcium carbonate hemihydrate, called Plaster of Paris. III. When moistened with water, anhydrous copper sulphate forms a green-coloured copper sulphate dihydrate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  34. 84
    Consider the following pairs :
    Chemical ReactionType of Chemical Reaction
    I.Fe(s)+CuSO4 (aq.)→FeSO4 (aq.)+Cu(s)\text{Fe(s)} + \text{CuSO}_4\,(\text{aq.}) \rightarrow \text{FeSO}_4\,(\text{aq.}) + \text{Cu(s)}Displacement reaction
    II.Na2SO4 (aq.)+BaCl2 (aq.)→BaSO4(s)+2NaCl (aq.)\text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4\,(\text{aq.}) + \text{BaCl}_2\,(\text{aq.}) \rightarrow \text{BaSO}_4(\text{s}) + 2\text{NaCl}\,(\text{aq.})Double displacement reaction
    III.Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g)→2Fe(s)+3CO2(g)\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3(\text{s}) + 3\text{CO(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe(s)} + 3\text{CO}_2(\text{g})Redox reaction
    IV.2KClO3(s)→2KCl(s)+3O2(g)2\text{KClO}_3(\text{s}) \rightarrow 2\text{KCl(s)} + 3\text{O}_2(\text{g})Thermal decomposition reaction
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

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  35. 85
    What are the approximate percentages by mass of nitrogen and hydrogen respectively in urea ?

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  36. 86
    Coconut oil upon hydrolysis with potassium hydroxide gives :

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  37. 87
    Consider the following statements regarding hydrogen bonds : I. Hydrogen bonds can only form when hydrogen is bonded to oxygen, nitrogen or fluorine. II. Hydrogen bonds are intramolecular only. III. The strength of a hydrogen bond decreases with a decrease in the electronegativity of the two bonded atoms. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

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  38. 88
    Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. This is due to :

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  39. 89
    Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of Portland cement ? I. Adding more water (higher water-cement ratio) accelerates the initial setting time of cement. II. The addition of a small percentage of gypsum gives the desired retardation. III. Gypsum is added during manufacturing to accelerate the setting time of cement. Select the answer using the code given below :

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  40. 90
    Consider the following pairs :
    Example of ColloidType of Colloid
    I.CloudAerosol
    II.MudSol
    III.MilkEmulsion
    IV.RubberFoam
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

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  41. 91
    Consider the following statements in relation to respiration in animals : I. Glucose breaks down into pyruvate in the cytoplasm of all cells in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. II. The energy released during anaerobic respiration is greater than the energy released in aerobic respiration. III. Carbon dioxide is released only in aerobic respiration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  42. 92
    In humans, the exit of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine is regulated by which one of the following structures/processes ?

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  43. 93
    Which of the following cells form components of complex permanent tissue in plants ? I. Companion cells II. Sieve tubes III. Tracheids IV. Vessels Select the answer using the code given below :

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  44. 94
    Which one of the following is not a part of the hindbrain of human beings ?

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  45. 95
    Which of the following organisms show external fertilization ? I. Pigeon II. Frog III. Fish IV. Lizard Select the answer using the code given below :

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  46. 96
    Which one of the following plant groups is characterized by having a haploid plant body ?

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  47. 97
    A flower typically is composed of :

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  48. 98
    Which one of the following organelles is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells ?

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  49. 99
    Which one of the following is not a connective tissue in the human body ?

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  50. 100
    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an insect-pollinated plant ?

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  51. 101
    Consider the following States : I. Tripura II. Chhattisgarh III. Assam IV. Odisha How many of the States given above have jute mills ?

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  52. 102
    Which one of the following is classified under the physical processes of weathering ?

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  53. 103
    Consider the following statements : I. The Steppes of Eurasia are temperate grasslands. II. The Pampas of South America are classified as tropical grasslands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  54. 104
    Consider the following statements regarding the slash-and-burn agricultural practices in India : I. This practice is a primitive subsistence farming. II. This practice is known as Jhum in the North Eastern Hill region. III. When soil fertility decreases, farmers shift to a fresh patch of land. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  55. 105
    Consider the following statements regarding western disturbances in the Indian climate : I. These are shallow cyclonic depressions. II. They originate over the Caspian Sea and travel to India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  56. 106
    Consider the following statements regarding earthquake waves : I. P-waves are similar to sound waves. II. S-waves can travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. III. The zone between 105∘105^\circ and 145∘145^\circ from the epicentre is identified as the shadow zone for both P- and S-waves. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  57. 107
    Consider the following statements : I. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and here the winds blow perpendicular to the isobars. II. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. III. The Coriolis force and the resultant wind do not blow parallel to the isobars at higher latitudes. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  58. 108
    The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples of :

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  59. 109
    The temperate forests in the Nilgiris, Anaimalai and Palani hills are called :

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  60. 110
    Consider the following statements with regard to igneous rocks : I. These rocks cannot be changed into metamorphic rocks. II. When molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains tend to be very small. III. These rocks are known as primary rocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  61. 111
    Consider the following statements : I. The Prime Meridian is the same as the International Date Line. II. West of the International Date Line is always a day later than east of the line. III. The Earth turns 15∘15^\circ of longitude in an hour. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  62. 112
    The Earth's equatorial region bulges outward, but the Earth flattens slightly towards the polar regions due to the :

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  63. 113
    In the southern hemisphere, trade winds blow from :

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  64. 114
    Consider the following statements regarding the structure of the atmosphere : I. The average height of the troposphere is higher nearer the poles than at the equator. II. The mesosphere contains the ozone layer. III. Radio waves transmitted from the Earth are reflected to the Earth by the ionosphere. IV. In the mesosphere, temperature decreases with an increase in altitude. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  65. 115
    Consider the following oceanic currents : I. Oyashio II. Canaries III. Labrador IV. Kuroshio V. Benguela VI. Alaska VII. Humboldt How many of the above are Pacific Ocean currents ?

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  66. 116
    Consider the following : I. Abrasion II. Attrition III. Hydraulic action IV. Solution Which of the above are the main types of river erosion ?

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  67. 117
    A prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space is known as :

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  68. 118
    Which group of landlocked states shares a boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?

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  69. 119
    Consider the following statements regarding the nature of rocks : I. Rocks are aggregates of one or more minerals. II. Granite is softer than soapstone. III. Gabbro is black and quartzite can be milky white. IV. Sedimentary rocks are related to foliation. Which of the statements given above are not correct ?

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  70. 120
    The 'Agricultural Population Density' is referred to as the ratio of the :

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  71. 121
    The annual session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929 was held in :

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  72. 122
    Shortughai, a Harappan trading post in Afghanistan, was important to the Harappans for the possible supply of :

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  73. 123
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding the demands of the protest movement known as Luddism (1811 – 17) ? I. A minimum wage for workers. II. The right to form trade unions so that they could legally present their demands. III. The use of machinery for efficient labour-saving production. Select the answer using the code given below :

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  74. 124
    Consider the following statements regarding the Industrial Revolution in Britain : I. At the beginning of industrialization, coal and iron ore were plentifully available in Britain. II. The blast furnace came into use at the beginning of the 18th century. III. Britain was lucky in possessing excellent coking coal and high-grade iron ore in the same basins. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  75. 125
    Which one of the following inscriptions records the history of a guild of silk weavers ?

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  76. 126
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Event)List II (Year)
    I. Passing of the Age of Consent BillA. 1893
    II. Establishment of the Arya SamajB. 1883
    III. Death of Dayanand SaraswatiC. 1875
    IV. Foundation of the Nagari Pracharini SabhaD. 1891
    Select the answer using the code given below :

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  77. 127
    Consider the following statements with regard to the types of land listed in the Amarakosha. I. Devamatrika refers to land watered by rain. II. Aprahata refers to fallow land. III. Pankila refers to highly fertile land. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  78. 128
    Consider the following statements regarding the role of political parties in modern democracies : I. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties. II. Political parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them. III. Political parties shape public opinion. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  79. 129
    Consider the following statements with regard to the Lahore Session : I. The Congress decided to observe Independence Day on 26 January 1930. II. It was decided to hoist the National Flag and sing patriotic songs at different venues. III. Gandhiji suggested that the event be held synchronously in all the places. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  80. 130
    Consider the following statements : I. The Kailasanatha temple of Kanchi is the earliest Pallava temple hewn from solid rock. II. The Vaikuntha Perumal temple at Kanchi is a rare Pallava temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  81. 131
    Consider the following pairs with reference to the Constitution of India :
    PartSubject
    I. Part VThe Union
    II. Part XThe Scheduled and Tribal Areas
    III. Part XIIRelations between the Union and the States
    IV. Part XIVAmendment of the Constitution
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

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  82. 132
    With reference to the Panchsheel, which of the following is/are correct ? I. Mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty II. Mutual non-interference III. Collective security against non-aggression IV. Peaceful co-existence Select the answer using the code given below :

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  83. 133
    Consider the following statements related to national integration : I. The expression of regional issues is not a part of democratic politics. II. Nation-building is an ongoing process. III. Regional imbalance is associated with India's development experience. IV. Regions together form the nation. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  84. 134
    Consider the following statements regarding UN reforms : I. India demands an expanded Security Council. II. India does not support an increase in non-permanent members. III. The majority of the UN General Assembly members are from developing countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  85. 135
    Which one of the following Five-Year Plan documents was titled as 'Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth' ?

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  86. 136
    Consider the following statements regarding the PESA Act, 1996 : I. Gram Sabhas have the power to declare Scheduled Areas. II. Gram Sabhas have the powers related to the management of community resources. III. The PESA applies to all States except areas under the Fifth Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

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  87. 137
    Which one of the following is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body ?

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  88. 138
    Which one of the following committees recommended constitutional recognition for local bodies ?

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  89. 139
    The anti-defection provisions were incorporated in the Constitution through which one of the following Constitutional Amendments ?

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  90. 140
    Consider the following statements regarding the Neighbourhood First Policy : I. India provides high-impact community development projects to Afghanistan. II. Bhutan is India's key maritime neighbour and vital partner in Vision MAHASAGAR. III. India launched Operation Brahma to provide relief following an earthquake in Myanmar. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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  91. 141
    India has engaged in an agreement to supply BrahMos missiles to which of the following countries ? I. Indonesia II. Philippines III. Singapore IV. Vietnam Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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  92. 142
    Ramanujan Fellowship is an initiative of the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India. It was launched under the :

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  93. 143
    Which of the following countries is not a member of the International Big Cat Alliance ?

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  94. 144
    Consider the following statements regarding the 'Green Nobel' : I. It is given every alternate year. II. In 2026, six winners were chosen and one of the winners is from Asia. III. All the winners of 2026 are women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  95. 145
    Which two countries signed a $\$2.6 billion uranium supply agreement in March 2026 ?

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  96. 146
    Consider the following statements regarding Exercise DUSTLIK-2026 : I. It is a joint military exercise between India and U.A.E. II. Its aim is to foster military cooperation and enhance combined capabilities to execute joint operations in semi-mountainous terrain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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  97. 147
    Which of the following statements about 'Vayu Shakti-2026' is/are correct ? I. The Vayu Shakti-2026 exercise took place in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. II. Advanced fighter aircraft of the Indian Air Force, including Rafale, HAL Tejas and Mirage 2000 carried out strikes. III. Boeing Apache and Boeing Chinook helicopters participated in this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below :

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  98. 148
    Which of the following statements related to water governance is/are correct ? I. River Basin Management (RBM) is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. II. The major objectives of the RBM Scheme focus on promoting the use of water for domestic use. III. The Brahmaputra Board is one of the key implementing agencies of the RBM. Select the answer using the code given below :

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  99. 149
    Which of the following statements regarding the Khelo India Tribal Games is/are correct ? I. The inaugural edition of the Khelo India Tribal Games was organized in two States : Jharkhand and Odisha. II. 'Morveer' was the official mascot of these games. III. The Khelo India Tribal Games are part of the Khelo India Scheme. Select the answer using the code given below :

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  100. 150
    Consider the following statements I. Over 60% of defence equipment sourced by the Armed Forces of India is now produced domestically. II. The Indian defence focus is on scale, resilience and indigenous capability. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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