PYQ Vault

NEET (UG) 2022 question paper

200 questions · 800 marks · 200 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1 per wrong one

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Physics

50 questions

  1. 1
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Electromagnetic waves)List-II (Wavelength)
    (a)AM radio waves(i)10−1010^{-10} m
    (b)Microwaves(ii)10210^{2} m
    (c)Infrared radiations(iii)10−210^{-2} m
    (d)X-rays(iv)10−410^{-4} m
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  2. 2
    An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

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  3. 3
    The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2^2 is

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  4. 4
    In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in

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  5. 5
    A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is

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  6. 6
    The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ)(\lambda) of a particle and its associated momentum (p)(p) is

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  7. 7
    As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

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  8. 8
    A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v)(v) as a function of time (t)(t) is

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  9. 9
    The dimensions [MLT−2A−2][MLT^{-2}A^{-2}] belong to the

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  10. 10
    In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be

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  11. 11
    If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is

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  12. 12
    A shell of mass mm is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed vv, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is

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  13. 13
    Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is

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  14. 14
    If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble

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  15. 15
    An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms−1^{-1}. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g=10(g = 10 m s−2)^{-2})

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  16. 16
    The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is

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  17. 17
    When two monochromatic lights of frequency, ν\nu and ν2\dfrac{\nu}{2} are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes Vs2\dfrac{V_s}{2} and VsV_s respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is

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  18. 18
    A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

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  19. 19
    In the given nuclear reaction, the element XX is 1122Na→X+e++ν^{22}_{11}\text{Na} \rightarrow X + e^+ + \nu

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  20. 20
    Given below are two statements Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge qq, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, qq. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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  21. 21
    The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

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  22. 22
    The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to

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  23. 23
    The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is

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  24. 24
    In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is

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  25. 25
    A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω\Omega is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is

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  26. 26
    Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω\Omega and 200 Ω\Omega are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω\Omega to that in 200 Ω\Omega in a given time is

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  27. 27
    The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st^{st}, 2nd^{nd}, 3rd^{rd} and 4th^{th} second

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  28. 28
    A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

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  29. 29
    A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3\sqrt{3}, at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be

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  30. 30
    When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εr\varepsilon_r and relative permeability μr\mu_r, the velocity of light, vv is given by (cc-velocity of light in vacuum)

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  31. 31
    Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1R_1 and R2R_2 (R1≫R2R_1 \gg R_2) have equal charges. The potential would be

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  32. 32
    A copper wire of length 10 m and radius (10−2π)\left(\dfrac{10^{-2}}{\sqrt{\pi}}\right) m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω\Omega. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is

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  33. 33
    The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the xx-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

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  34. 34
    Plane angle and solid angle have

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  35. 35
    Let T1T_1 and T2T_2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T1:T2T_1 : T_2 is

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  36. 36
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-IList-II
    (a)Gravitational constant (G)(i)[L2T−2][L^2 T^{-2}]
    (b)Gravitational potential energy(ii)[M−1L3T−2][M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}]
    (c)Gravitational potential(iii)[LT−2][LT^{-2}]
    (d)Gravitational intensity(iv)[ML2T−2][ML^2 T^{-2}]
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  37. 37
    Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

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  38. 38
    The area of a rectangular field (in m2^2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is

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  39. 39
    A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms−1^{-1}, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be

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  40. 40
    The truth table for the given logic circuit is (the circuit consists of NAND gates producing A⋅B‾\overline{A \cdot B} and A‾⋅B‾\overline{\overline{A} \cdot B}, combined at a final AND gate to give output C)

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  41. 41
    From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is

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  42. 42
    A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μ\muF, resistance 50 Ω\Omega is connected to an ac source of voltage, V=200sin⁡(100t)V = 200\sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is ν0\nu_0 and the frequency of the ac source is ν\nu, then

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  43. 43
    Two point charges −q-q and +q+q are placed at a distance of LL, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R≫L)R (R \gg L) varies as:

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  44. 44
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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  45. 45
    A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s−1^{-1}. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2×10−52 \times 10^{-5} T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω\Omega, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be

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  46. 46
    The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is

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  47. 47
    A capacitor of capacitance C=900C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery BB as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C=900C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

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  48. 48
    A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance XX by adjusting the variable resistance YY as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of XX, the resistances PP and QQ

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  49. 49
    Two transparent media AA and BB are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5×1081.5 \times 10^8 m/s and 2.0×1082.0 \times 10^8 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is

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  50. 50
    A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is

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Chemistry

50 questions

  1. 51
    Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done? (Each option is a p-V graph labelled Isothermal)

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  2. 52
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): IClICl is more reactive than I2I_2. Reason (R): I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  3. 53
    Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound? (Options are structures: (1) cyclopentadienyl anion, (2) tropylium/cycloheptatrienyl cation, (3) cyclopropenyl cation, (4) cycloheptatriene)

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  4. 54
    The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

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  5. 55
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Drug class)List-II (Drug molecule)
    (a) Antacids(i) Salvarsan
    (b) Antihistamines(ii) Morphine
    (c) Analgesics(iii) Cimetidine
    (d) Antimicrobials(iv) Seldane
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  6. 56
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Hydrides)List-II (Nature)
    (a) MgH2MgH_2(i) Electron precise
    (b) GeH4GeH_4(ii) Electron deficient
    (c) B2H6B_2H_6(iii) Electron rich
    (d) HF(iv) Ionic
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  7. 57
    The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

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  8. 58
    The IUPAC name of the complex [Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2][Ag(H_2O)_2][Ag(CN)_2] is:

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  9. 59
    Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

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  10. 60
    Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?

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  11. 61
    Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

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  12. 62
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions. Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below

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  13. 63
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  14. 64
    Given below are two statements Statement I The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order – H2O<H2S<H2Se<H2TeH_2O < H_2S < H_2Se < H_2Te Statement II The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  15. 65
    The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction. (The graph shows y constant with x at constant temperature T.) The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

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  16. 66
    The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

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  17. 67
    Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene? (Options (3) and (4) show benzene/aniline structures with reagents)

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  18. 68
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

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  19. 69
    The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds? (Options are structures: (1) nitrobenzene, (2) pyridine, (3) aniline, (4) azobenzene)

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  20. 70
    Choose the correct statement:

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  21. 71
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following

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  22. 72
    Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

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  23. 73
    Given below are two statements Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  24. 74
    At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu2+/CuCu^{2+}/Cu, Zn2+/ZnZn^{2+}/Zn, Fe2+/FeFe^{2+}/Fe and Ag+/AgAg^+/Ag are 0.34 V, –0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

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  25. 75
    Given below are two statements Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al3+>Ba2+>Na+Al^{3+} > Ba^{2+} > Na^+ Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl>Na2SO4>Na3PO4NaCl > Na_2SO_4 > Na_3PO_4 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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  26. 76
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-IList-II
    (a) Li(i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
    (b) Na(ii) electrochemical cells
    (c) KOH(iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
    (d) Cs(iv) photoelectric cell
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  27. 77
    Given below are two statements Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2HNO_2 to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2HNO_2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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  28. 78
    Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

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  29. 79
    In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

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  30. 80
    RMgX+CO2→dry etherY→H3O+RCOOHRMgX + CO_2 \xrightarrow{\text{dry ether}} Y \xrightarrow{H_3O^+} RCOOH What is Y in the above reaction?

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  31. 81
    Given below are half cell reactions: MnO4−+8H++5e−→Mn2++4H2OMnO_4^- + 8H^+ + 5e^- \rightarrow Mn^{2+} + 4H_2O, EMn2+/MnO4−∘=−1.510E^\circ_{Mn^{2+}/MnO_4^-} = -1.510 V 12O2+2H++2e−→H2O\frac{1}{2}O_2 + 2H^+ + 2e^- \rightarrow H_2O, EO2/H2O∘=+1.223E^\circ_{O_2/H_2O} = +1.223 V Will the permanganate ion, MnO4−MnO_4^- liberate O2O_2 from water in the presence of an acid?

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  32. 82
    What mass of 95% pure CaCO3CaCO_3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction? CaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)→CaCl2(aq)+CO2(g)+2H2O(l)CaCO_{3(s)} + 2HCl_{(aq)} \rightarrow CaCl_{2(aq)} + CO_{2(g)} + 2H_2O_{(l)} [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

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  33. 83
    The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKapK_a of CH3COOHCH_3COOH = 4.57]

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  34. 84
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Products formed)List-II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
    (a) Cyanohydrin(i) NH2OHNH_2OH
    (b) Acetal(ii) RNH2RNH_2
    (c) Schiff's base(iii) alcohol
    (d) Oxime(iv) HCN
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  35. 85
    Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

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  36. 86
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2ZnCl_2, known as Lucas Reagent. Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  37. 87
    If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+He^+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+Li^{2+} ion?

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  38. 88
    For a first order reaction A →\rightarrow Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min−1min^{-1} is

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  39. 89
    A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. (Assume O2O_2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K−1K^{-1} mol−1mol^{-1})

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  40. 90
    The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is (a hexane chain bearing Cl on C5, OH on C3, methyl on C4 and Br on C1)

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  41. 91
    The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  42. 92
    Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608×10−83.608 \times 10^{-8} cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm−3cm^{-3}. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

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  43. 93
    Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K Ni(s)+2Ag+(0.001 M)→Ni2+(0.001 M)+2Ag(s)Ni(s) + 2Ag^+(0.001\,M) \rightarrow Ni^{2+}(0.001\,M) + 2Ag(s) (Given that Ecell∘=10.5E^\circ_{cell} = 10.5 V, 2.303 RTF=0.059\frac{2.303\,RT}{F} = 0.059 at 298 K)

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  44. 94
    The product formed from the following reaction sequence is: benzonitrile (C6H5CNC_6H_5CN) treated with (i) LiAlH4,H2OLiAlH_4, H_2O; (ii) NaNO2+HClNaNO_2 + HCl; (iii) H2OH_2O. (Options are structures: (1) benzamide, (2) benzyl diazonium chloride, (3) benzyl chloride, (4) benzyl alcohol)

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  45. 95
    The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+[Ni(H_2O)_2(en)_2]^{2+} (B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+[Ni(H_2O)_4(en)]^{2+} and (C) [Ni(en)3]2+[Ni(en)_3]^{2+} is

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  46. 96
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Ores)List-II (Composition)
    (a) Haematite(i) Fe3O4Fe_3O_4
    (b) Magnetite(ii) ZnCO3ZnCO_3
    (c) Calamine(iii) Fe2O3Fe_2O_3
    (d) Kaolinite(iv) [Al2(OH)4Si2O5][Al_2(OH)_4Si_2O_5]
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  47. 97
    In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4KMnO_4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

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  48. 98
    Compound X on reaction with O3O_3 followed by Zn/H2OZn/H_2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is

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  49. 99
    3O2(g)⇌2O3(g)3O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2O_3(g) for the above reaction at 298 K, KCK_C is found to be 3.0×10−593.0 \times 10^{-59}. If the concentration of O2O_2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O3O_3 in M is

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  50. 100
    Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating? (Options are structures of cross-aldol condensation products)

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Biology

100 questions

  1. 101
    Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

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  2. 102
    Identify the correct set of statements : (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  3. 103
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  4. 104
    Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

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  5. 105
    Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

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  6. 106
    Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

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  7. 107
    The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

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  8. 108
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-IList-II
    (a) Manganese(i) Activates the enzyme catalase
    (b) Magnesium(ii) Required for pollen germination
    (c) Boron(iii) Activates enzymes of respiration
    (d) Iron(iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  9. 109
    Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

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  10. 110
    Given below are two statements : Statement I: The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  11. 111
    Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

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  12. 112
    Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

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  13. 113
    What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

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  14. 114
    "Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

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  15. 115
    Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

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  16. 116
    Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

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  17. 117
    DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :

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  18. 118
    XO type of sex determination can be found in :

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  19. 119
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  20. 120
    The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :

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  21. 121
    The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :

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  22. 122
    Given below are two statements : Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  23. 123
    Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :

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  24. 124
    Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements : (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  25. 125
    Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

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  26. 126
    The flowers are Zygomorphic in: (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  27. 127
    Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?

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  28. 128
    Read the following statements about the vascular bundles : (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii. (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  29. 129
    Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :

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  30. 130
    Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

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  31. 131
    Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :

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  32. 132
    What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

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  33. 133
    In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to : (a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels. (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem. (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem. (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem. (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  34. 134
    The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :

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  35. 135
    Given below are two statements : Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  36. 136
    Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

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  37. 137
    While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and (-) for another specifies involved in the interaction ?

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  38. 138
    Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit? (In the figure, C and D point to the outer regions, B and A point to the inner regions of a longitudinal section of a fruit.)

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  39. 139
    Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
    List-IList-II
    (a) Spirogyra(i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte
    (b) Fern(ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
    (c) Funaria(iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
    (d) Cycas(iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  40. 140
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    (a) Metacentric chromosome(i) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms
    (b) Acrocentric chromosome(ii) Centromere at the terminal end
    (c) Submetacentric(iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes
    (d) Telocentric chromosome(iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  41. 141
    Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :

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  42. 142
    Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?

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  43. 143
    Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

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  44. 144
    In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

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  45. 145
    Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements: (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

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  46. 146
    What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

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  47. 147
    If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :

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  48. 148
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  49. 149
    The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood. (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  50. 150
    The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

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  51. 151
    In-situ conservation refers to:

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  52. 152
    In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

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  53. 153
    If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

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  54. 154
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  55. 155
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  56. 156
    Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  57. 157
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  58. 158
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  59. 159
    Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

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  60. 160
    Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ________ ml of O2O_2 to the tissues.

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  61. 161
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

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  62. 162
    Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

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  63. 163
    Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

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  64. 164
    Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

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  65. 165
    In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

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  66. 166
    Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

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  67. 167
    Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

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  68. 168
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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  69. 169
    Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

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  70. 170
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  71. 171
    A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6 then what is the formula for maltose?

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  72. 172
    Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

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  73. 173
    Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

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  74. 174
    Tegmina in cockroach, arises from

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  75. 175
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  76. 176
    If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

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  77. 177
    Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to

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  78. 178
    Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

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  79. 179
    Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :

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  80. 180
    In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

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  81. 181
    At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

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  82. 182
    Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :

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  83. 183
    In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

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  84. 184
    Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

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  85. 185
    Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

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  86. 186
    If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

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  87. 187
    Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

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  88. 188
    Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  89. 189
    Which one of the following statements is correct?

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  90. 190
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Biological Molecules)List-II (Biological functions)
    (a)Glycogen(i)Hormone
    (b)Globulin(ii)Biocatalyst
    (c)Steroids(iii)Antibody
    (d)Thrombin(iv)Storage product
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  91. 191
    Ten E.coli cells with 15N^{15}N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N^{14}N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N^{15}N?

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  92. 192
    The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

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  93. 193
    Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca2+Ca^{2+} level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca2+Ca^{2+} by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+Ca^{2+} from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  94. 194
    Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

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  95. 195
    Which of the following statements is not true?

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  96. 196
    Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

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  97. 197
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-IList-II
    (a)Bronchioles(i)Dense Regular Connective Tissue
    (b)Goblet Cell(ii)Loose Connective Tissue
    (c)Tendons(iii)Glandular Tissue
    (d)Adipose Tissue(iv)Ciliated Epithelium
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  98. 198
    Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
    List-IList-II
    (a)Diaphragms(i)Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
    (b)Contraceptive Pills(ii)Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
    (c)Intra Uterine Devices(iii)Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
    (d)Lactational Amenorrhea(iv)They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  99. 199
    Which of the following is a correct statement?

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  100. 200
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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