PYQ Vault

NEET (UG) 2023 question paper

200 questions · 800 marks · 200 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1 per wrong one

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Physics

50 questions

  1. 1
    The temperature of a gas is −50∘C-50^\circ C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?

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  2. 2
    An ac source is connected to a capacitor CC. Due to decrease in its operating frequency

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  3. 3
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity. Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  4. 4
    Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000±5%) Ω(22000 \pm 5\%)\,\Omega. The colour of third band must be

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  5. 5
    If the galvanometer GG does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of RR is given by

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  6. 6
    An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30∘30^\circ with an electric field of intensity 2×105 N C−12 \times 10^5\,N\,C^{-1}. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m4\,N\,m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm2\,cm.

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  7. 7
    A vehicle travels half the distance with speed vv and the remaining distance with speed 2v2v. Its average speed is

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  8. 8
    The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is

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  9. 9
    In a series LCRLCR circuit, the inductance LL is 10 mH10\,mH, capacitance CC is 1 μF1\,\mu F and resistance RR is 100 Ω100\,\Omega. The frequency at which resonance occurs is

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  10. 10
    Light travels a distance xx in time t1t_1 in air and 10x10x in time t2t_2 in another denser medium. What is the critical angle for this medium?

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  11. 11
    The minimum wavelength of XX-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of VV volts is proportional to

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  12. 12
    A bullet is fired with a velocity of 280 m s−1280\,m\,s^{-1} at an angle of 30∘30^\circ with the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g=9.8 m s−2g = 9.8\,m\,s^{-2}, sin⁡30∘=0.5\sin 30^\circ = 0.5)

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  13. 13
    A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?

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  14. 14
    The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm2\,cm from a soap solution is nearly (surface tension of soap solution =0.03 N m−1= 0.03\,N\,m^{-1})

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  15. 15
    The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is

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  16. 16
    A block of weight WW is suspended from a wire of uniform cross-sectional area AA as shown. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area AA of the wire is

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  17. 17
    A metal wire has mass (0.4±0.002) g(0.4 \pm 0.002)\,g, radius (0.3±0.001) mm(0.3 \pm 0.001)\,mm and length (5±0.02) cm(5 \pm 0.02)\,cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be

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  18. 18
    For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below: Statement I: If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. Statement II: If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  19. 19
    The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is

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  20. 20
    In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0×1010 Hz2.0 \times 10^{10}\,Hz and amplitude 48 V m−148\,V\,m^{-1}. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is (Speed of light in free space =3×108 m s−1= 3 \times 10^8\,m\,s^{-1})

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  21. 21
    The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is

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  22. 22
    A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is

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  23. 23
    The venturi-meter works on

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  24. 24
    The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 μH4\,\mu H carrying a current of 2 A2\,A is

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  25. 25
    Two bodies of mass mm and 9m9m are placed at a distance RR. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (GG = gravitational constant)

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  26. 26
    The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV2.14\,eV, 2.30 eV2.30\,eV and 2.75 eV2.75\,eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV2.20\,eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?

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  27. 27
    A 12 V12\,V, 60 W60\,W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step-down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V220\,V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?

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  28. 28
    The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is

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  29. 29
    The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm2\,cm is UU. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm8\,cm, potential energy stored in it will be

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  30. 30
    The half life of a radioactive substance is 2020 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to (116)th\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{th} of its initial value?

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  31. 31
    A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50%50\% when its source is at a temperature 327∘C327^\circ C. The temperature of the sink is

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  32. 32
    If ∮sE⃗⋅dS⃗=0\oint_s \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dS} = 0 over a surface, then

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  33. 33
    The wavelength of the series limit of the Balmer series is λ\lambda. The wavelength of the series limit of the Bracket series is

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  34. 34
    The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are

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  35. 35
    The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass MM and radius RR about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is

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  36. 36
    Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (ff), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be

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  37. 37
    In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)? Given n1=1.5n_1 = 1.5, n2=1.6n_2 = 1.6 and R1=R2=20 cmR_1 = R_2 = 20\,cm.

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  38. 38
    What is the radius of the third Bohr orbit (n=3n = 3) of the hydrogen atom? (radius of first Bohr orbit =0.53 A˚= 0.53\,\text{\AA})

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  39. 39
    1010 resistors, each of resistance RR are connected in series to a battery of emf EE and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased nn times. The value of nn is

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  40. 40
    An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. The electric potential (in 102 V10^2\,V) at point PP due to the dipole is (ϵ0\epsilon_0 = permittivity of free space and 14πϵ0=K\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = K)

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  41. 41
    Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.150.15 (g=10 m s−2g = 10\,m\,s^{-2}).

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  42. 42
    For the following logic circuit, the truth table is (inputs AA and BB each pass through a NOT gate, then feed a NAND gate to give output YY)

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  43. 43
    The xx-tt graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at t=2 st = 2\,s is

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  44. 44
    A bullet moving with velocity uu strikes a wooden block. After penetrating 24 cm24\,cm into the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes u3\frac{u}{3}. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is

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  45. 45
    A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from AA to BB as shown in figure. The magnetic field at point PP for steady current configuration is given by

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  46. 46
    The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be

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  47. 47
    A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period TT. If dd is the density of the earth and GG is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity 3πGd\dfrac{3\pi}{Gd} represents

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  48. 48
    A straight wire of length LL carrying a current II is placed along the xx-axis in a uniform magnetic field B⃗=(2i^+3j^−4k^) T\vec{B} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 4\hat{k})\ \text{T}. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is

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  49. 49
    The resistance of platinum wire at 0∘C0^\circ\text{C} is 2 Ω2\ \Omega and 6.8 Ω6.8\ \Omega at 80∘C80^\circ\text{C}. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is

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  50. 50
    A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity 4 m s−14\ \text{m s}^{-1}. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take g=10 m s−2g = 10\ \text{m s}^{-2})

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Chemistry

50 questions

  1. 51
    The given compound (a phenyl group attached to CH=CH−CH(X)−CH2−CH3CH=CH-CH(X)-CH_2-CH_3) is an example of ______.

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  2. 52
    Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include: A. dipole - dipole forces B. dipole - induced dipole forces C. hydrogen bonding D. covalent bonding E. dispersion forces Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  3. 53
    The monomer of neoprene is

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  4. 54
    Identify product (A) in the following reaction: a cyclohexane bearing a methyl ketone and a (3-acetylphenyl) group treated with Zn-Hg / conc. HCl gives (A) + 2H2O2H_2O.

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  5. 55
    The correct increasing order of energies of molecular orbitals for molecules like B2,C2,N2B_2, C_2, N_2 is

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  6. 56
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic. Reason R: The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  7. 57
    Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is

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  8. 58
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: In equation ΔrG=−nFEcell\Delta_r G = -nFE_{cell}, value of ΔrG\Delta_r G depends on n. Reason R: EcellE_{cell} is an intensive property and ΔrG\Delta_r G is an extensive property. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  9. 59
    Complete the following reaction: cyclohexanone →HCN\xrightarrow{HCN} [A] gives cyanohydrin [B] (1-hydroxycyclohexanecarbonitrile), then [B] →Δconc. H2SO4\xrightarrow[\Delta]{conc.\ H_2SO_4} [C]. [C] is ______.

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  10. 60
    The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is

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  11. 61
    Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is:

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  12. 62
    Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?

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  13. 63
    Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?

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  14. 64
    Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ ion acts as a Lewis acid?

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  15. 65
    3-Methylbutan-2-ol (CH3−CH(CH3)−CH(OH)−CH3)(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CH(OH)-CH_3) on reaction with HBr gives Product (P). Identify P.

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  16. 66
    Identify the product in the following reaction: benzenediazonium chloride (C6H5N2+Cl−)(C_6H_5N_2^+Cl^-) treated with (i) Cu2Br2/HBrCu_2Br_2/HBr, (ii) Mg/dry ether, (iii) H2OH_2O gives Product.

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  17. 67
    The number of σ\sigma bonds, π\pi bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:

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  18. 68
    Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous catalysis?

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  19. 69
    For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]2[B]k[A]^2[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would

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  20. 70
    Which amongst the following options is correct graphical representation of Boyle's law?

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  21. 71
    The right option for the mass of CO2CO_2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) [CaCO3→1200 KCaO+CO2][CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{1200\ K} CaO + CO_2]

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  22. 72
    The relation between nmn_m, (nmn_m = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number (m)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number (l), is

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  23. 73
    The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25∘^\circC is 0.0210 ohm−1 cm−1ohm^{-1}\ cm^{-1} and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25∘^\circC is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is

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  24. 74
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside. Statement II: When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  25. 75
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. Reason R: Helium has high solubility in O2O_2. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  26. 76
    The stability of Cu2+Cu^{2+} is more than Cu+Cu^+ salts in aqueous solution due to

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  27. 77
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. CokeI. Carbon atoms are sp3sp^3 hybridised
    B. DiamondII. Used as a dry lubricant
    C. FullereneIII. Used as a reducing agent
    D. GraphiteIV. Cage like molecules
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  28. 78
    A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is AxByA_xB_y, then the value of x + y is in option

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  29. 79
    Amongst the following the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outermost shell, is NH3,AlCl3,BeCl2,CCl4,PCl5NH_3, AlCl_3, BeCl_2, CCl_4, PCl_5:

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  30. 80
    Which of the following statements are NOT correct? A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals. B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism. C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils. D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any elements. E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  31. 81
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: A reaction can have zero activation energy. Reason R: The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  32. 82
    Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?

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  33. 83
    Select the correct statements from the following A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles. B. The mass of the electron is 9.10939×10−319.10939 \times 10^{-31} kg. C. All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties. D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons. E. Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particles of matter Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  34. 84
    Which one of the following statements is correct?

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  35. 85
    In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe3+Fe^{3+} due to the formation of

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  36. 86
    Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?

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  37. 87
    Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions. CH3CHO→(ii)H3O+(i)LiAlH4[A]→ΔH2SO4[B]→HBr[C]→Na/dry etherbromobenzene[D]CH_3CHO \xrightarrow[(ii)H_3O^+]{(i)LiAlH_4} [A] \xrightarrow[\Delta]{H_2SO_4} [B] \xrightarrow{HBr} [C] \xrightarrow[Na/dry\ ether]{bromobenzene} [D]

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  38. 88
    On balancing the given redox reaction, aCr2O72−+bSO32−(aq)+cH+(aq)→2aCr3+(aq)+bSO42−(aq)+c2H2O(l)aCr_2O_7^{2-} + bSO_3^{2-}(aq) + cH^+(aq) \to 2aCr^{3+}(aq) + bSO_4^{2-}(aq) + \frac{c}{2}H_2O(l), the coefficients a, b and c are found to be, respectively-

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  39. 89
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication Statement II: Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  40. 90
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Oxoacids of Sulphur)List-II (Bonds)
    A. Peroxodisulphuric acidI. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-S
    B. Sulphuric acidII. Two S-OH, One S=O
    C. Pyrosulphuric acidIII. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-O-S
    D. Sulphurous acidIV. Two S-OH, Two S=O
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  41. 91
    The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction A+B⇌C+DA + B \rightleftharpoons C + D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L−1L^{-1}, respectively at 300 K. ΔG∘\Delta G^\circ for the reaction is (R = 2 cal/mol K)

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  42. 92
    Consider the following compounds/species (i. naphthalene, ii. cyclopentadienyl anion, iii. cyclobutadiene, iv. cyclopropenyl anion, v. cyclopropenyl cation, vi. cyclooctatetraene, vii. anthracene). The number of compounds/species which obey Huckel's rule is ______.

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  43. 93
    Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic. B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in Sc2O3Sc_2O_3 to Mn2O7Mn_2O_7. C. Basic character increases from V2O3V_2O_3 to V2O4V_2O_4 to V2O5V_2O_5. D. V2O4V_2O_4 dissolves in acids to give VO43−VO_4^{3-} salts. E. CrO is basic but Cr2O3Cr_2O_3 is amphoteric. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  44. 94
    Pumice stone is an example of

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  45. 95
    Consider the following reaction: benzyl phenyl ether type compound (C6H5−CH2−O−C6H4−C_6H_5-CH_2-O-C_6H_4-) →ΔHIA+B\xrightarrow[\Delta]{HI} A + B. Identify products A and B.

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  46. 96
    Which complex compound is most stable?

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  47. 97
    Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction: 2-acetylbenzaldehyde (a benzene ring bearing an acetyl group and a -CHO group) +2[Ag(NH3)2]++3 −OH→Δ+ 2[Ag(NH_3)_2]^+ + 3\ ^-OH \xrightarrow{\Delta} major product.

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  48. 98
    Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?

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  49. 99
    What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void lies in one unit cell of FCC?

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  50. 100
    The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is:

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Biology

100 questions

  1. 101
    Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by

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  2. 102
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1, 6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  3. 103
    Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in :

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  4. 104
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Autumn wood or late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels. Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  5. 105
    The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?

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  6. 106
    Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by

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  7. 107
    Given below are two statements : One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage. Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:

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  8. 108
    In the gene gun (biolistics) method, the microparticles used to bombard cells with DNA are made up of

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  9. 109
    Axile placentation is observed in

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  10. 110
    In the equation GPP – R = NPP GPP is Gross Primary Productivity NPP is Net Primary Productivity R here is ________.

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  11. 111
    In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as

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  12. 112
    In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I is responsible for

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  13. 113
    Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show

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  14. 114
    The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :

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  15. 115
    Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

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  16. 116
    In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are :

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  17. 117
    Starch gives blue colour with iodine but cellulose does not. This is because cellulose:

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  18. 118
    Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?

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  19. 119
    Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :

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  20. 120
    Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.

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  21. 121
    The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year

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  22. 122
    During isolation of the genetic material, which of the following precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol?

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  23. 123
    What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?

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  24. 124
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : The forces generated transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height. Statement II : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  25. 125
    Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps hastening the maturity period, that leads early seed production?

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  26. 126
    Which of the following elements plays a major role in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis?

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  27. 127
    Identify the correct statements: A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  28. 128
    Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

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  29. 129
    The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at

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  30. 130
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Endarch condition is the most common feature of the primary xylem in the plant body. Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  31. 131
    Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by

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  32. 132
    The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

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  33. 133
    Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

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  34. 134
    The number of ATP and NADPH2NADPH_2 molecules required for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the Calvin cycle is

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  35. 135
    Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in

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  36. 136
    Match List I with List II :
    List IList II
    A. M PhaseI. Proteins are synthesized
    B. G2G_2 PhaseII. Inactive phase
    C. Quiescent stageIII. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
    D. G1G_1 PhaseIV. Equational division
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  37. 137
    Which of the following statements is incorrect?

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  38. 138
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive node instead of leaves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  39. 139
    Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  40. 140
    A ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about how many different proteins?

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  41. 141
    Match List I with List II:
    List IList II
    A. IronI. Synthesis of auxin
    B. ZincII. Component of nitrate reductase
    C. BoronIII. Activator of catalase
    D. MolybdenumIV. Cell elongation and differentiation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  42. 142
    Given below are two statements : One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents. Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  43. 143
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Interaction)List II (Species A and B)
    A. MutualismI. +(A), 0(B)
    B. CommensalismII. -(A), 0(B)
    C. AmensalismIII. +(A), -(B)
    D. ParasitismIV. +(A), +(B)
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  44. 144
    Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of

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  45. 145
    Match List I with List II :
    List IList II
    A. CohesionI. More attraction in liquid phase
    B. AdhesionII. Mutual attraction among water molecules
    C. Surface tensionIII. Water loss in liquid phase
    D. GuttationIV. Attraction towards polar surfaces
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  46. 146
    The chemiosmotic hypothesis for ATP synthesis requires

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  47. 147
    Identify the correct statements: A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases. B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark. C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem. E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  48. 148
    Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine developement is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  49. 149
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  50. 150
    Match List I with List II :
    List IList II
    A. Oxidative decarboxylationI. Citrate synthase
    B. GlycolysisII. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
    C. Oxidative phosphorylationIII. Electron transport system
    D. Tricarboxylic acid cycleIV. EMP pathway
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  51. 151
    Match List I with List II.
    List I (Type of Joint)List II (Found between)
    A. Cartilaginous JointI. Between flat skull bones
    B. Ball and Socket JointII. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
    C. Fibrous JointIII. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
    D. Saddle JointIV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  52. 152
    Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?

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  53. 153
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. Gene 'a'I. β\beta-galactosidase
    B. Gene 'y'II. Transacetylase
    C. Gene 'i'III. Permease
    D. Gene 'z'IV. Repressor protein
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  54. 154
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  55. 155
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. RingwormI. Haemophilus influenzae
    B. FilariasisII. Trichophyton
    C. MalariaIII. Wuchereria bancrofti
    D. PneumoniaIV. Plasmodium vivax
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  56. 156
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. VasectomyI. Oral method
    B. Coitus interruptusII. Barrier method
    C. Cervical capsIII. Surgical method
    D. SaheliIV. Natural method
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  57. 157
    Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?

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  58. 158
    Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.
    List IList II
    A. FoveaI. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
    B. IrisII. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
    C. Blind spotIII. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
    D. ScleraIV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  59. 159
    Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.

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  60. 160
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. P-waveI. Beginning of systole
    B. Q-waveII. Repolarisation of ventricles
    C. QRS complexIII. Depolarisation of atria
    D. T-waveIV. Depolarisation of ventricles
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  61. 161
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. HeroinI. Effect on cardiovascular system
    B. MarijuanaII. Slow down body function
    C. CocaineIII. Painkiller
    D. MorphineIV. Interfere with transport of dopamine
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  62. 162
    Vital capacity of lung is _________.

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  63. 163
    Broad palm with characteristic palm crease, short statured with small round head, and furrowed tongue with partially open mouth are the symptoms of which of the following genetic disorders?

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  64. 164
    Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?

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  65. 165
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue. Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  66. 166
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal). Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of α\alpha type and two subunits of β\beta type.) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  67. 167
    Match List I with List II.
    List I (Interacting species)List II (Name of interaction)
    A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grasslandI. Competition
    B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nestII. Brood parasitism
    C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in MycorrhizaeIII. Mutualism
    D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a fieldIV. Commensalism
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  68. 168
    Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

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  69. 169
    Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?

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  70. 170
    Given below are some statements regarding reproductive cycles: A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  71. 171
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. CCKI. Kidney
    B. GIPII. Heart
    C. ANFIII. Gastric gland
    D. ADHIV. Pancreas
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  72. 172
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  73. 173
    Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system? A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex E. Peroxisomes Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  74. 174
    Which of the following statements is correct?

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  75. 175
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  76. 176
    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla. Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  77. 177
    In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?

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  78. 178
    Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ______.

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  79. 179
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  80. 180
    Match List I with List II.
    List I (Cells)List II (Secretion)
    A. Peptic cellsI. Mucus
    B. Goblet cellsII. Bile juice
    C. Oxyntic cellsIII. Proenzyme pepsinogen
    D. Hepatic cellsIV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12_{12}
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  81. 181
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  82. 182
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  83. 183
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. TaeniaI. Nephridia
    B. ParamoeciumII. Contractile vacuole
    C. PeriplanetaIII. Flame cells
    D. PheretimaIV. Urecose gland
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  84. 184
    Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by

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  85. 185
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  86. 186
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. Logistic growthI. Unlimited resource availability condition
    B. Exponential growthII. Limited resource availability condition
    C. Expanding age pyramidIII. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups
    D. Stable age pyramidIV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  87. 187
    The unique mammalian characteristics are:

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  88. 188
    Select the correct statements with reference to chordates. A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord. B. Presence of closed circulatory system. C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits. D. Presence of dorsal heart. E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  89. 189
    Select the correct statements. A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene. B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate. C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase. E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  90. 190
    The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:

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  91. 191
    Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

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  92. 192
    Match List I with List II.
    List IList II
    A. Mast cellsI. Ciliated epithelium
    B. Inner surface of bronchioleII. Areolar connective tissue
    C. BloodIII. Cuboidal epithelium
    D. Tubular parts of nephronIV. Specialised connective tissue
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  93. 193
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors. B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis. C. ANF causes vasodilation. D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure. E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  94. 194
    Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follows 5'AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG AUCG 3'?

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  95. 195
    Which of the following is present in male cockroach but absent in female cockroach (a distinguishing feature of male cockroach)?

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  96. 196
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus E. Basophils are agranulocytes Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  97. 197
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle? A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle. B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions. C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins. D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  98. 198
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: During G0_0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive. Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  99. 199
    In cockroach, excretion is brought about by- A. Phallic gland B. Urecose gland C. Nephrocytes D. Fat body E. Collaterial glands Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  100. 200
    Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone? A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle D. Development of immune system E. Support the process of RBCs formation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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