PYQ Vault

Re-NEET (UG) 2024 question paper

200 questions · 800 marks · 200 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1 per wrong one

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Physics

50 questions

  1. 1
    The magnetic potential energy, when a magnetic bar of magnetic moment m⃗\vec{m} is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field B⃗\vec{B} is

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  2. 2
    A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is:

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  3. 3
    A metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6 μ\muC. The surface charge density on the cube is

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  4. 4
    The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material (all the symbols carry their usual meaning and ε\varepsilon is a small positive number) is

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  5. 5
    An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube XYXY (as shown in the figure) from end XX to end YY. If K1K_1 and K2K_2 are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at XX and YY respectively, then the correct option is :

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  6. 6
    The escape velocity for earth is vv. A planet having 9 times mass that of earth and radius, 16 times that of earth, has the escape velocity of:

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  7. 7
    An electron and an alpha particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let λe\lambda_e and λα\lambda_\alpha denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the alpha particle, respectively, then:

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  8. 8
    An object moving along horizontal xx-direction with kinetic energy 10 J is displaced through x=(3i^)x = \left(3\hat{i}\right) m by the force F⃗=(−2i^+3j^)\vec{F} = \left(-2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}\right) N. The kinetic energy of the object at the end of the displacement xx is

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  9. 9
    An object falls from a height of 10 m above the ground. After striking the ground it loses 50% of its kinetic energy. The height upto which the object can rebounce from the ground is:

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  10. 10
    In the circuit shown below, the inductance LL is connected to an ac source. The current flowing in the circuit is I=I0sin⁡ωtI = I_0\sin\omega t. The voltage drop (VL)(V_L) across LL is

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  11. 11
    A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in nJ is

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  12. 12
    A uniform wire of diameter dd carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is vv. For a wire of diameter d2\dfrac{d}{2} of the same material to carry a current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is

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  13. 13
    In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V=(200±4)V = (200 \pm 4) volt and the current is measured as I=(20±0.2)I = (20 \pm 0.2) A. The value of the resistance is:

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  14. 14
    A step up transformer is connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V to operate at 11000 V, 88 watt. The current in the secondary circuit, ignoring the power loss in the transformer, is

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  15. 15
    A particle is moving along xx-axis with its position (x)(x) varying with time (t)(t) as x=αt4+βt2+γt+δx = \alpha t^4 + \beta t^2 + \gamma t + \delta. The ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration, respectively, is:

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  16. 16
    The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 5 kg about XYXY is 5 m as shown in figure. The radius of the sphere is 5x7\dfrac{5x}{\sqrt{7}} m, then the value of xx is:

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  17. 17
    The I-V characteristics shown above are exhibited by a

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  18. 18
    The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, respectively, 1.0×10−21.0 \times 10^{-2} A m2^2 and 10−6π2\dfrac{10^{-6}}{\pi^2} kg m2^2. If it completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the magnitude of the magnetic field is

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  19. 19
    The capacitance of a capacitor with charge qq and a potential difference VV depends on

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  20. 20
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : Image formation needs regular reflection and/or refraction. Statement II : The variety in colour of objects we see around us is due to the constituent colours of the light incident on them. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  21. 21
    A uniform metal wire of length ll has 10 Ω\Omega resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a length 2l2l and then bent to form a perfect circle. The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary diameter of that circle is

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  22. 22
    The spectral series which corresponds to the electronic transition from the levels n2=5,6,...n_2 = 5, 6, ... to the level n1=4n_1 = 4 is

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  23. 23
    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Houses made of concrete roofs overlaid with foam keep the room hotter during summer. Reason R: The layer of foam insulation prohibits heat transfer, as it contains air pockets. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  24. 24
    A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude AA has the same potential and kinetic energies at the displacement

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  25. 25
    Two slits in Young's double slit experiment are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is 600×10−9600 \times 10^{-9} m then the fringe separation is

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  26. 26
    Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

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  27. 27
    The pitch of an error free screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm and 63rd^{rd} division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is:

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  28. 28
    Let us consider two solenoids AA and BB, made from same magnetic material of relative permeability μr\mu_r and equal area of cross-section. Length of AA is twice that of BB and the number of turns per unit length in AA is half that of BB. The ratio of self inductances of the two solenoids, LA:LBL_A : L_B is

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  29. 29
    When the output of an OR gate is applied as input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts as a

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  30. 30
    Interference pattern can be observed due to superposition of the following waves: A. y=asin⁡ωty = a\sin\omega t B. y=asin⁡2ωty = a\sin 2\omega t C. y=asin⁡(ωt−ϕ)y = a\sin(\omega t - \phi) D. y=asin⁡3ωty = a\sin 3\omega t Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  31. 31
    If ϕ\phi is the work function of photosensitive material in eV and light of wavelength of numerical value λ=hce\lambda = \dfrac{hc}{e} metre, is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant then the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that instant (Take hh-Plank's constant, cc-velocity of light in free space) is (in SI units):

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  32. 32
    The electromagnetic radiation which has the smallest wavelength are

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  33. 33
    The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by A. Pressure B. Total heat C. Temperature D. Volume E. Work done Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  34. 34
    Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions. Then:

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  35. 35
    A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at 30° with the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N. The acceleration of the box is (Take g=10g = 10 m s−2^{-2})

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  36. 36
    If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is 1 : 4. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric field intensity (E)(E) to the magnetic field intensity (H)(H) of an EM wave propagating in that medium is (Given that μ0ε0=120π)\left(\text{Given that } \sqrt{\dfrac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}} = 120\pi\right):

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  37. 37
    The value of electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from the point charge 4×10−74 \times 10^{-7} C is [Given 14πε0=9×109 N m2 C−2]\left[\text{Given } \dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9\ \text{N m}^2\ \text{C}^{-2}\right]:

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  38. 38
    The displacement of a travelling wave y=Csin⁡2πλ(at−x)y = C\sin\dfrac{2\pi}{\lambda}(at - x) where tt is time, xx is distance and λ\lambda is the wavelength, all in S.I. units. Then the frequency of the wave is

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  39. 39
    An object of mass 100 kg falls from point AA to BB as shown in figure. The change in its weight, corrected to the nearest integer is (RER_E is the radius of the earth)

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  40. 40
    The potential energy of a particle moving along xx-direction varies as V=Ax2x+BV = \dfrac{Ax^2}{\sqrt{x} + B}. The dimensions of A2B\dfrac{A^2}{B} are:

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  41. 41
    The two-dimensional motion of a particle, described by r⃗=(i^+2j^)Acos⁡ωt\vec{r} = \left(\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}\right)A\cos\omega t is a/an: A. parabolic path B. elliptical path C. periodic motion D. simple harmonic motion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  42. 42
    A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0I_0 is passed through a polaroid AA, then through another polaroid BB, oriented at 60° and finally through another polaroid CC, oriented at 45° relative to BB as shown. The intensity of emergent light is:

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  43. 43
    Select the correct statements among the following : A. Slow neutrons can cause fission in 92235U^{235}_{92}U than fast neutrons. B. α\alpha-rays are Helium nuclei. C. β\beta-rays are fast moving electrons or positrons. D. γ\gamma-rays are electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths larger than X-rays. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  44. 44
    Let ω1,ω2\omega_1, \omega_2 and ω3\omega_3 be the angular speed of the second hand, minute hand and hour hand of a smoothly running analog clock, respectively. If x1,x2x_1, x_2 and x3x_3 are their respective angular distances in 1 minute then the factor which remains constant (k)(k) is

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  45. 45
    The magnetic moment of an iron bar is MM. It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc section is

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  46. 46
    The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire ABAB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In order to get zero reading in the galvanometer GG, the free end of JJ is to be placed from BB at:

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  47. 47
    According to the law of equipartition of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic gas of constant γ=CpCv\gamma = \dfrac{C_p}{C_v} is (CPC_P where CVC_V are the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively):

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  48. 48
    The output YY for the inputs AA and BB of the given logic circuit is :

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  49. 49
    The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a circuit decreases exponentially as Q=Q0e−Rt/2LQ = Q_0 e^{-Rt/2L}, where Q0Q_0 is the charge at t=0t = 0 s. The time at which charge amplitude decreases to 0.50 Q00.50\, Q_0 is nearly: [Given that R=1.5 Ω,L=12R = 1.5\ \Omega, L = 12 mH, ln⁡(2)=0.693\ln(2) = 0.693]

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  50. 50
    The steady state current in the circuit shown below is :

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Chemistry

50 questions

  1. 51
    The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is

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  2. 52
    Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :
    Rate (mol L−1 s−1mol\ L^{-1}\ s^{-1})[A][B]
    2×10−32 \times 10^{-3}0.1 M0.1 M
    4×10−34 \times 10^{-3}0.2 M0.1 M
    1.6×10−21.6 \times 10^{-2}0.2 M0.2 M
    The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively, are

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  3. 53
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the formula ((CH3)2−CH)3B((CH_3)_2-CH)_3B. Statement II: Oxidation of ((CH3)2−CH)3B((CH_3)_2-CH)_3B with hydrogen peroxide in presence of NaOH gives propan-2-ol. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  4. 54
    Baeyer's reagent is :

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  5. 55
    Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value?

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  6. 56
    The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is: p-nitroethylbenzene treated with (i) Cl2/FeCl3Cl_2/FeCl_3, (ii) Sn/HCl, (iii) NaNO2NaNO_2/HCl 273–278 K, (iv) KI →\to X

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  7. 57
    Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point?

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  8. 58
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-I (Atom/Molecule)List-II (Property)
    A.Nitrogen atomI.Paramagnetic
    B.Fluorine moleculeII.Most reactive element in group 18
    C.Oxygen moleculeIII.Element with highest ionisation enthalpy in group 15
    D.Xenon atomIV.Strongest oxidising agent
    Identify the correct answer from the options given below :

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  9. 59
    From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.

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  10. 60
    Which of the following pairs of ions will have same spin only magnetic moment values within the pair? A. Zn2+,Ti2+Zn^{2+}, Ti^{2+} B. Cr2+,Fe2+Cr^{2+}, Fe^{2+} C. Ti3+,Cu2+Ti^{3+}, Cu^{2+} D. V2+,Cu+V^{2+}, Cu^+ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  11. 61
    At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria are given below:
    3A2+B2⇌2A3B,K13A_2 + B_2 \rightleftharpoons 2A_3B, \quad K_1
    A3B⇌32A2+12B2,K2A_3B \rightleftharpoons \frac{3}{2}A_2 + \frac{1}{2}B_2, \quad K_2
    The relation between K1K_1 and K2K_2 is :

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  12. 62
    Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubilities in chloroform: NaCl,CH3OH,cyclohexane,CH3CNNaCl, CH_3OH, cyclohexane, CH_3CN

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  13. 63
    Identify the incorrect statement about PCl5PCl_5.

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  14. 64
    Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is 15 litres :

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  15. 65
    The correct IUPAC name of the compound (a benzene ring bearing F, NO2NO_2 and C2H5C_2H_5 substituents) is:

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  16. 66
    Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents?

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  17. 67
    Select the incorrect reaction among the following:

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  18. 68
    The UV-visible absorption bands in the spectra of lanthanoid ions are 'X', probably because of the excitation of electrons involving 'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y', respectively, are :

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  19. 69
    Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an:

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  20. 70
    The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of M20\dfrac{M}{20} aqueous solution is : (Molar mass of glucose : 180 g mol−1180\ g\ mol^{-1})

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  21. 71
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

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  22. 72
    For the reaction in equilibrium
    N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g), ΔH=−QN_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g),\ \Delta H = -Q
    Reaction is favoured in forward direction by:

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  23. 73
    The major product D formed in the following reaction sequence is:
    CH3OH→SOCl2A→aq. EtOHKCNB→EtOHNa(Hg)C→(ii) H2O(i) NaNO2+HClD (major)CH_3OH \xrightarrow{SOCl_2} A \xrightarrow[aq.\ EtOH]{KCN} B \xrightarrow[EtOH]{Na(Hg)} C \xrightarrow[(ii)\ H_2O]{(i)\ NaNO_2 + HCl} D\ (major)

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  24. 74
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Block/group in periodic table)List-II (Element)
    A.LanthanoidI.Ce
    B.d-block elementII.As
    C.p-block elementIII.Cs
    D.s-block elementIV.Mn
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  25. 75
    Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?

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  26. 76
    The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below : I. n=4;l=2;ml=−2;s=−12n = 4; l = 2; m_l = -2; s = -\frac{1}{2} II. n=3;l=2;ml=1;s=+12n = 3; l = 2; m_l = 1; s = +\frac{1}{2} III. n=4;l=1;ml=0;s=+12n = 4; l = 1; m_l = 0; s = +\frac{1}{2} IV. n=3;l=1;ml=−1;s=+12n = 3; l = 1; m_l = -1; s = +\frac{1}{2} The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is

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  27. 77
    The major product C in the below mentioned reaction is:
    CH3CH2CH2Br→Δalc. KOHA→HBrB→Δaq. KOHCCH_3CH_2CH_2Br \xrightarrow[\Delta]{alc.\ KOH} A \xrightarrow{HBr} B \xrightarrow[\Delta]{aq.\ KOH} C

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  28. 78
    The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test is :

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  29. 79
    For an endothermic reaction: A. qpq_p is negative. B. ΔrH\Delta_r H is positive. C. ΔrH\Delta_r H is negative. D. qpq_p is positive. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  30. 80
    1.0 g of H2H_2 has same number of molecules as in:

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  31. 81
    Which of the following plot represents the variation of ln k versus 1T\dfrac{1}{T} in accordance with Arrhenius equation? (Options are plots of ln k against 1/T)

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  32. 82
    A steam volatile organic compound which is immiscible with water has a boiling point of 250°C. During steam distillation, a mixture of this organic compound and water will boil :

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  33. 83
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Glycogen is similar to amylose in its structure. Statement II : Glycogen is found in yeast and fungi also. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  34. 84
    The oxidation states not shown by Mn in given reaction is :
    3MnO42−+4H+→2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O3MnO_4^{2-} + 4H^+ \to 2MnO_4^- + MnO_2 + 2H_2O
    A. +6 B. +2 C. +4 D. +7 E. +3 Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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  35. 85
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at 536RH cm−1\dfrac{5}{36}R_H\ cm^{-1}. (RHR_H = Rydberg constant) Statement II: When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity and wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  36. 86
    Identify D in the following sequence of reactions:
    CH3CH2OH→P+I2A→dry etherMgB→HCHOC→H2OD (major)CH_3CH_2OH \xrightarrow{P + I_2} A \xrightarrow[dry\ ether]{Mg} B \xrightarrow{HCHO} C \xrightarrow{H_2O} D\ (major)

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  37. 87
    Identify the incorrect statement.

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  38. 88
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-I (Test/reagent)List-II (Radical identified)
    A.Lake TestI.NO3−NO_3^-
    B.Nessler's ReagentII.Fe3+Fe^{3+}
    C.Potassium sulphocyanideIII.Al3+Al^{3+}
    D.Brown Ring TestIV.NH4+NH_4^+
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  39. 89
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Molecule)List-II Bond enthalpy (kJ mol−1kJ\ mol^{-1})
    A.HClI.435.8
    B.N2N_2II.498
    C.H2H_2III.946.0
    D.O2O_2IV.431.0
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  40. 90
    The standard cell potential of the following cell Zn∣Zn2+(aq)∣∣Fe2+(aq)∣FeZn|Zn^{2+}(aq)||Fe^{2+}(aq)|Fe is 0.32 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the reaction :
    Zn(s)+Fe2+(aq)→Zn2+(aq)+Fe(s)Zn(s) + Fe^{2+}(aq) \to Zn^{2+}(aq) + Fe(s)
    (Given : 1 F = 96487 C)

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  41. 91
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Solid salt treated with dil. H2SO4H_2SO_4)List-II (Anion detected)
    A.effervescence of colourless gasI.NO2−NO_2^-
    B.gas with smell of rotten eggII.CO32−CO_3^{2-}
    C.gas with pungent smellIII.S2−S^{2-}
    D.brown fumesIV.SO32−SO_3^{2-}
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  42. 92
    The ratio of solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in water is: (Given : Solubility product of AgCl = 10−1010^{-10})

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  43. 93
    On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of CO2CO_2 and 0.1 g of H2OH_2O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in the compound, respectively is:

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  44. 94
    The following reaction method (toluene +X2→darkFe+ X_2 \xrightarrow[dark]{Fe} ortho- and para-halotoluene) is not suitable for the preparation of the corresponding haloarene products, due to high reactivity of halogen, when X is :

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  45. 95
    The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by KMnO4KMnO_4 as per the equation R2−C(R1)(R3)−H→KMnO4R2−C(R1)(R3)−OHR_2-C(R_1)(R_3)-H \xrightarrow{KMnO_4} R_2-C(R_1)(R_3)-OH is, when:

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  46. 96
    For the following reaction at 300 K
    A2(g)+3B2(g)→2AB3(g)A_2(g) + 3B_2(g) \to 2AB_3(g)
    the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal energy change is :

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  47. 97
    Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.04 s−1s^{-1} and 0.14 s−1s^{-1}, respectively; then, activation energy of the reaction is : (Given: log3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K−1 mol−1J\ K^{-1}\ mol^{-1})

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  48. 98
    Mass of glucose (C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6) required to be dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution which is isotonic with 15 g L−1L^{-1} solution of urea (NH3CONH2NH_3CONH_2) is (Given: Molar mass in g mol−1g\ mol^{-1} C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14)

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  49. 99
    [Mn2(CO)10][Mn_2(CO)_{10}] and [Co2(CO)8][Co_2(CO)_8] structures have A. Metal-Metal linkage B. Terminal CO groups C. Bridging CO groups D. Metal in zero oxidation state Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  50. 100
    Methyl group attached to a positively charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to

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Biology

100 questions

  1. 101
    The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the species and habitat are identified as:

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  2. 102
    Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear?

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  3. 103
    In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as:

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  4. 104
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: When many alleles of a single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic inheritance. Statement II: In Polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  5. 105
    Which of the following are required for the light reaction of Photosynthesis? A. CO2CO_2 B. O2O_2 C. H2OH_2O D. Chlorophyll E. Light Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  6. 106
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. FlemingI.Disc shaped sacs or cisternae near cell nucleus
    B. Robert BrownII.Chromatin
    C. George PaladeIII.Ribosomes
    D. Camillo GolgiIV.Nucleus
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  7. 107
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Type of Inheritance)List-II (Example)
    A. Incomplete dominanceI.Blood groups in human
    B. Co-dominanceII.Flower colour in Antirrhinum
    C. PleiotropyIII.Skin colour in human
    D. Polygenic inheritanceIV.Phenylketonuria
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  8. 108
    Which part of the ovule stores reserve food materials?

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  9. 109
    Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms?

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  10. 110
    Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?

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  11. 111
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research. Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  12. 112
    Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of :

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  13. 113
    Identify the incorrect pair :

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  14. 114
    Which of the following is the correct match?

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  15. 115
    Given below are two statements regarding RNA polymerase in prokaryotes. Statement I : In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing the process of elongation during transcription. Statement II : RNA polymerase associate transiently with 'Rho' factor to initiate transcription. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  16. 116
    Which of the following is a nucleotide?

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  17. 117
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-IList-II
    A. Vexillary aestivationI.Brinjal
    B. Epipetalous stamensII.Peach
    C. Epiphyllous stamensIII.Pea
    D. Perigynous flowerIV.Lily
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  18. 118
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-IList-II
    A. China roseI.Free central
    B. MustardII.Basal
    C. PrimroseIII.Axile
    D. MarigoldIV.Parietal
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  19. 119
    Which of the following helps in maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve tubes?

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  20. 120
    Mesosome in a cell is a :

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  21. 121
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-IList-II
    A. Abscisic acidI.Promotes female flowers in cucumber
    B. EthyleneII.Helps seeds to withstand desiccation
    C. GibberellinIII.Helps in nutrient mobilisation
    D. CytokininIV.Promotes bolting in beet, cabbage etc
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  22. 122
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-IList-II
    A. Genetically engineered Human InsulinI.Gene therapy
    B. GM CottonII.E. coli
    C. ADA DeficiencyIII.Antigen-antibody interaction
    D. ELISAIV.Bacillus thuringiensis
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  23. 123
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. ETS Complex II.NADH Dehydrogenase
    B. ETS Complex IIII.Cytochrome bC1bC_1
    C. ETS Complex IIIIII.Cytochrome C oxidase
    D. ETS Complex IVIV.Succinate Dehydrogenase
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  24. 124
    Cryopreservation technique is used for :

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  25. 125
    Which of the following are correct about cellular respiration? A. Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation. B. The entire cellular respiration takes place in Mitochondria. C. Fermentation takes place under anaerobic condition in germinating seeds. D. The fate of pyruvate formed during glycolysis depends on the type of organism also. E. Water is formed during respiration as a result of O2O_2 accepting electrons and getting reduced. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  26. 126
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: In eukaryotes there are three RNA polymerases in the nucleus in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles. Statement II: All the three RNA polymerases in eukaryotic nucleus have different roles. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  27. 127
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. HistonesI.Loosely packed chromatin
    B. NucleosomeII.Densely packed Chromatin
    C. EuchromatinIII.Positively charged basic proteins
    D. HeterochromatinIV.DNA wrapped around histone octamer
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  28. 128
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell cycle resulting in the gain or loss of whole set of chromosome in an organism is known as aneuploidy. Statement II: Failure of cytokinesis after anaphase stage of cell division results in the gain or loss of a chromosome is called polyploidy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  29. 129
    Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of

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  30. 130
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Metacentric chromosomeI.Chromosome has a terminal centromere
    B. Sub-metacentric chromosomeII.Middle centromere forming two equal arms of chromosome
    C. Acrocentric chromosomeIII.Centromere is slightly away from the middle of chromosome resulting into two unequal arms
    D. Telocentric chromosomeIV.Centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short and one very long arm
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  31. 131
    Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for catalysing the linking together of two compounds. Which of the following bonds is not catalysed by it?

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  32. 132
    F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxin was supplied with one of the following except :

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  33. 133
    Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators. A. All GAs are acidic in nature. B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs. C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk. D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango. E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy. Choose the correct set of statements from the options given below:

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  34. 134
    Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.

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  35. 135
    Which of the following examples show monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules? A. Sesbania B. Brinjal C. Indigofera D. Tobacco E. Asparagus Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  36. 136
    Given below are two statements : Statement I: In the lac operon, the z gene codes for beta-galactosidase which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into galactose and glucose. Statement II: In addition to lactose, glucose or galactose can also induce lac operon. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  37. 137
    The part marked as 'x' in the given figure is

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  38. 138
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the abaxial epidermis. Statement II: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells, which are arranged vertically and parallel to each other. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  39. 139
    Which of the following are not fatty acids? A. Glutamic acid B. Arachidonic acid C. Palmitic acid D. Lecithin E. Aspartic acid Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  40. 140
    Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below: If T4T_4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value at T1T_1?

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  41. 141
    Which one of the following products diffuses out of the chloroplast during photosynthesis?

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  42. 142
    Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with:

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  43. 143
    Which one of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids?

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  44. 144
    The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton kills the pest by:

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  45. 145
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Organisms)List-II (Mode of Nutrition)
    A. EuglenoidI.Parasitic
    B. DinoflagellateII.Saprophytic
    C. Slime mouldIII.Photosynthetic
    D. PlasmodiumIV.Switching between photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  46. 146
    Which of the following graphs depicts the effect of substrate concentration on velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction?

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  47. 147
    When will the population density increase, under special conditions? When the number of :

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  48. 148
    When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of : (a) Tall plants with round seeds and (b) Tall plants with wrinkled seeds. Identify the genotype of the parent plant.

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  49. 149
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Biodiversity hotspotI.Khasi and Jantia hills in Meghalaya
    B. Sacred grovesII.World Summit on Sustainable Development 2002
    C. Johannesburg, South AfricaIII.Parthenium
    D. Alien species invasionIV.Western Ghats
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  50. 150
    Observe the given figure. Identify the different stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the correct option.

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  51. 151
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. PredatorI. Ophrys
    B. MutualismII. Pisaster
    C. ParasitismIII. Female wasp and fig
    D. Sexual deceitIV. Plasmodium
    Chose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  52. 152
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Location of Joint)List-II (Type of Joint)
    A. Joint between humerus and pectoral girdleI. Gliding joint
    B. Knee jointII. Ball and Socket joint
    C. Joint between atlas and axisIII. Hinge joint
    D. Joint between carpalsIV. Pivot joint
    Chose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  53. 153
    Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect. B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins. C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals. D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the insect. E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria. Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:

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  54. 154
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Gene poolI. Stable within a generation
    B. Genetic driftII. Change in gene frequency by chance
    C. Gene flowIII. Transfer of genes into or out of population
    D. Gene frequencyIV. Total number of genes and their alleles
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  55. 155
    Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given in figure?

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  56. 156
    A person with blood group ARh−^- can receive the blood transfusion from which of the following types? A. BRh−^- B. ABRh−^- C. ORh−^- D. ARh−^- E. ARh+^+ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  57. 157
    Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as:

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  58. 158
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Event)List-II (Stage of Prophase-I (Meiosis-I))
    A. Chiasmata formationI. Pachytene
    B. Crossing overII. Diakinesis
    C. Synaptonemal complex formationIII. Diplotene
    D. Terminalisation of chiasmataIV. Zygotene
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  59. 159
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. Primary structure of proteinI. Human haemoglobin
    B. Secondary structure of proteinII. Disulphide bonds
    C. Tertiary structure of proteinIII. Polypeptide chain
    D. Quaternary structure of proteinIV. Alpha helix and β\beta sheet
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  60. 160
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. EpinephrineI. Hyperglycemia
    B. ThyroxineII. Smooth muscle contraction
    C. OxytocinIII. Basal metabolic rate
    D. GlucagonIV. Emergency hormone
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  61. 161
    Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body?

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  62. 162
    Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tetR^R) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.

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  63. 163
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. ChondrichthyesI. Clarias
    B. CyclostomataII. Carcharodon
    C. OsteichthyesIII. Myxine
    D. AmphibiaIV. Ichthyophis
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  64. 164
    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: During menstrual cycle, the ovulation takes place approximately on 14th^{th} day. Reason R: Rapid secretion of LH in the middle of menstrual cycle induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  65. 165
    Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution:
    List-IList-II
    A. LemurI. Flying phalanger
    B. BobcatII. Numbat
    C. AnteaterIII. Spotted cuscus
    D. Flying squirrelsIV. Tasmanian tiger cat
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  66. 166
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. Cells are metabolically active and proliferateI. G2_2 phase
    B. DNA replication takes placeII. G1_1 phase
    C. Proteins are synthesisedIII. G0_0 phase
    D. Quiescent stage with metabolically active cellsIV. S phase
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  67. 167
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. Migratory flamingoes and resident fish in South American lakesI. Interference competition
    B. Abingdon tortoise became extinct after introduction of goats in their habitatII. Competitive release
    C. Chathamalus expands its distributional range in the absence of BalanusIII. Resource Partitioning
    D. Five closely related species of Warblers feeding in different locations on same treeIV. Interspecific competition
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  68. 168
    Match List-I with List-II relating to microbes and their products:
    List-I (Microbes)List-II (Products)
    A. StreptococcusI. Citric acid
    B. Trichoderma polysporumII. Clot buster
    C. Monascus purpureusIII. Cyclosporin A
    D. Aspergillus nigerIV. Statins
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  69. 169
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-IList-II
    A. F1_1 ParticlesI. Chromosomes
    B. HistonesII. Cilia
    C. AxonemeIII. Golgi apparatus
    D. CisternaeIV. Mitochondria
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  70. 170
    Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier:
    List-IList-II
    A. Copper releasing IUDI. Vaults
    B. Non-medicated IUDII. Multiload 375
    C. Contraceptive barrierIII. LNG-20
    D. Hormone releasing IUDIV. Lippes loop
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  71. 171
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microbes that kill other microbes. Statement II: Antibodies are chemicals formed in body that eliminate microbes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  72. 172
    Arrange the following parts in human Mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection. A. Mammary duct B. Lactiferous duct C. Mammary alveolus D. Ampulla E. Mammary tubule Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  73. 173
    Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? A. Cut the DNA with blunt end B. Cut the DNA with sticky end C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC' E. Exonuclease Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  74. 174
    Which of the following is/are present in female cockroach? A. Collateral gland B. Mushroom gland C. Spermatheca D. Anal style E. Phallic gland Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  75. 175
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Malignant tumorsI. Destroy tumors
    B. MALTII. AIDS
    C. NACOIII. Metastasis
    D. α\alpha-InterferonsIV. Lymphoid tissue
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  76. 176
    Open Circulatory system is present in:

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  77. 177
    In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin? A. Cartilage B. Bone C. Adipose tissue D. Blood E. Areolar tissue Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  78. 178
    Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match?

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  79. 179
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Residual VolumeI. Maximum volume of air that can be breathed in after forced expiration
    B. Vital CapacityII. Volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration
    C. Expiratory CapacityIII. Volume of air remaining in lungs after forcible expiration
    D. Tidal VolumeIV. Total volume of air expired after normal inspiration
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  80. 180
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Living FossilI. Elongated canine teeth
    B. Connecting LinkII. Vermiform appendix
    C. Vestigial OrganIII. Echidna
    D. AtavismIV. Latimeria
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  81. 181
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-IList-II
    A. Schwann cellsI. Neurotransmitter
    B. Synaptic knobII. Cerebral cortex
    C. Bipolar neuronsIII. Myelin sheath
    D. Multipolar neuronsIV. Retina
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  82. 182
    Diuresis is prevented by:

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  83. 183
    Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable. A. Genital warts B. Genital herpes C. Syphilis D. Hepatitis-B E. Trichomoniasis Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  84. 184
    What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era?

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  85. 185
    'Lub' sound of Heart is caused by the __________.

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  86. 186
    Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia.
    List-I (Structures)List-II (Features)
    A. Mons pubisI. A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the vaginal opening
    B. ClitorisII. Fatty cushion of cells covered by skin and hair
    C. HymenIII. Tiny finger-like structure above labia minora
    D. Labia majoraIV. A thin membrane-like structure covering vaginal opening
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

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  87. 187
    Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where chromosome number is not the exact copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to: A. Substitution B. Addition C. Deletion D. Translocation E. Inversion Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  88. 188
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA interference takes place in all Eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular defense. Statement II: RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary single-stranded RNA molecule that binds and prevents translation of mRNA In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  89. 189
    Identify the wrong statements: A. Erythropoietin is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney B. Leydig cells produce Androgens C. Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of the testes D. Cholecystokinin is produced by gastrointestinal tract E. Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in the production of pepsinogen Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  90. 190
    Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR. A. Annealing B. Amplification (~1 billion times) C. Denaturation D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides E. Extension Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below:

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  91. 191
    Given below are two statements: Statements I: Concentrated urine is formed due to counter current mechanism in nephron. Statement II: Counter current mechanism helps to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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  92. 192
    Given below are two statements: Statement I: Concentrically arranged cisternae of Golgi complex are arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or maturing and concave trans or forming face. Statement II: A number of proteins are modified in the cisternae of Golgi complex before they are released from cis face. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

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  93. 193
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. ParturitionI. Several antibodies for new-born babies
    B. PlacentaII. Collection of ovum after ovulation
    C. ColostrumIII. Foetal ejection reflex
    D. FimbriaeIV. Secretion of the hormone hCG
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

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  94. 194
    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult. Reason R: Thus all chordates are vertebrates not all vertebrates are chordates. In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below.

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  95. 195
    The mother has A+ blood group the father has B+ and the child is A+. What can be the possibility of genotypes of all three, respectively? A. IAIAI^A I^A | IBiI^B i | IBiI^B i B. IAIAI^A I^A | IBiI^B i | IAiI^A i C. IBiI^B i | IAIAI^A I^A | IAIBI^A I^B D. IAIAI^A I^A | IBIBI^B I^B | IAiI^A i E. IAiI^A i | IBiI^B i | IAiI^A i Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

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  96. 196
    What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the following population growth curve?

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  97. 197
    Select the correct statements regarding mechanism of muscle contraction. A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via sensory neuron. B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the sarcolemma. C. Increased Ca++^{++} level leads to the binding of calcium with troponin on action filaments. D. Masking of active site for actin is activated. E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form cross bridge. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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  98. 198
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. Squamous EpitheliumI. Goblet cells of alimentary canal
    B. Ciliated EpitheliumII. Inner lining of pancreatic ducts
    C. Glandular EpitheliumIII. Walls of blood vessels
    D. Compound EpitheliumIV. Inner surface of Fallopian tubes
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  99. 199
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-IList-II
    A. B-LymphocytesI. Passive immunity
    B. InterferonsII. Cell mediated immunity
    C. T-LymphocytesIII. Produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens
    D. ColostrumIV. Innate immunity
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  100. 200
    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: During the transportation of gases, about 20-25 percent of CO2_2 is carried by Haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin. Reason R: This binding is related to high pCO2_2 and low pO2_2 in tissues. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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