PYQ Vault

NEET (UG) 2026 question paper

180 questions · 720 marks · 180 minutes · +4 per correct answer, -1 per wrong one

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Physics

45 questions

  1. 1
    The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:

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  2. 2
    Match List I with List II:
    List IList II
    A. Young's ModulusI. ΔdΔL(Ld)\dfrac{\Delta d}{\Delta L}\left(\dfrac{L}{d}\right)
    B. CompressibilityII. FLA(ΔL)\dfrac{FL}{A(\Delta L)}
    C. Bulk ModulusIII. −1ΔP(ΔVV)-\dfrac{1}{\Delta P}\left(\dfrac{\Delta V}{V}\right)
    D. Poisson's RatioIV. −P(VΔV)-P\left(\dfrac{V}{\Delta V}\right)
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  3. 3
    The current II in the circuit shown below is: (All diodes are ideal and identical). The circuit has four parallel branches between the terminals of a 10 V battery: a 4 Ω4\,\Omega resistor in series with a forward-biased diode, a 3 Ω3\,\Omega resistor in series with a reverse-biased diode, a forward-biased diode in series with a 2 Ω2\,\Omega resistor, and a reverse-biased diode in series with a 5 Ω5\,\Omega resistor.

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  4. 4
    The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:

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  5. 5
    For a simple pendulum, having time period TT, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (tt) is represented by:

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  6. 6
    A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω2\,\Omega. If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is:

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  7. 7
    A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27∘^\circC. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases (VrmsArVrmsCl)\left(\dfrac{V_{rms}^{Ar}}{V_{rms}^{Cl}}\right) is: (Atomic mass of argon = 40.0 u and molecular mass of chlorine = 70.0 u)

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  8. 8
    A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABCABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QRQR) is parallel to its base (BCBC) and the angle of incidence (ii) is 50∘^\circ. Then the angle of deviation (δ\delta) is:

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  9. 9
    Match List I with List II.
    List-IList-II
    A. E=hνE = h\nuI. de Broglie wavelength
    B. Diffraction and InterferenceII. Particle nature of light
    C. λ=h/p\lambda = h/pIII. Wave nature of light
    D. Compton effectIV. Energy of photon
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  10. 10
    In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is −3.4-3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately: (Take 1 eV = 1.6×10−191.6 \times 10^{-19} J, e = 1.6×10−191.6 \times 10^{-19} C and 14πε0=9×109\dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 N m2^2/C2^2)

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  11. 11
    A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s−2^{-2} is: (g=10g = 10 m/s2^2)

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  12. 12
    Five capacitors of capacitances C1=C2=C3=C4=10 μC_1 = C_2 = C_3 = C_4 = 10\,\muF and C5=2.5 μC_5 = 2.5\,\muF are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V. The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:

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  13. 13
    The amount of work done to raise a mass 'mm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'RR' will be

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  14. 14
    Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as X×103X \times 10^3 kg m−3^{-3} where the value of XX is:

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  15. 15
    The following plots show variation of velocity (vv) with time (tt) of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?

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  16. 16
    The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately: (Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)

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  17. 17
    In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ\lambda, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ\lambda, is KK units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ3\dfrac{\lambda}{3} will be

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  18. 18
    In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode DD will be of the form: (An AC source ViV_i is connected to a diode DD in series with a resistor RR; VDV_D is the voltage across the diode.)

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  19. 19
    An ac circuit contains a resistance of 1 kΩ\Omega, a capacitor of 0.1 μ\muF and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:

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  20. 20
    In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy. B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  21. 21
    For a travelling harmonic wave y(x,t)=2.0cos⁡2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35)y(x, t) = 2.0\cos 2\pi(10t - 0.0080x + 0.35), where xx and yy are in cm and tt in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:

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  22. 22
    The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:

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  23. 23
    Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:

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  24. 24
    The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g=9.8g = 9.8 m/s2^2)

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  25. 25
    In a vernier calliper, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is:

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  26. 26
    When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times. (g=9.8g = 9.8 m s−2^{-2}) A. Person A has reaction time of 0.20 s. B. Person B has reaction time of 0.22 s. C. Person C has reaction time of 0.18 s. D. Person D has reaction time of 0.19 s. E. Person E has reaction time of 0.21 s. What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?

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  27. 27
    A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 Ω4\,\Omega is bent to form a square loop (ABCDABCD) (see figure). A resistance of 2 Ω2\,\Omega is connected between points BB and DD and a battery of 2 V is connected across points AA and CC as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (II) is:

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  28. 28
    A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?

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  29. 29
    A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of 3.14×10−33.14 \times 10^{-3} T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively: (Take μ0=4π×10−7\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} T m/A)

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  30. 30
    A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s−1^{-1}, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be:

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  31. 31
    Four statements are given (AA is mass number): A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A1/3A^{1/3}. B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to AA. C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect. D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  32. 32
    An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of 2.29×10172.29 \times 10^{17} kg/m3^3 and mass of 19.926×10−2719.926 \times 10^{-27} kg. Its mass number AA is approximately: (Take R0=1.2×10−15R_0 = 1.2 \times 10^{-15} m, 4π=12.564\pi = 12.56)

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  33. 33
    Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum LL, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take π2=9.8\pi^2 = 9.8, and g=9.8g = 9.8 m/s2^2)

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  34. 34
    An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:

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  35. 35
    A thin wire of length 'LL' and linear mass density 'mm' is bent into a circular ring (in xx-yy plane) with centre 'CC' as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy′yy' (a tangent to the ring parallel to the yy-axis) will be:

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  36. 36
    A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω100\,\Omega gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0 – 10 A. The shunt required is:

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  37. 37
    In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell, EE, and galvanometer, GG, are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:

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  38. 38
    The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?

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  39. 39
    The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius 'aa' carrying steady current II. The current II is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (BB) with distance (rr) from the axis of the conductor in the region is:

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  40. 40
    Two statements are given below: A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly. B. This current is called reverse saturation current. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  41. 41
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero. B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density. C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation. D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point. E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  42. 42
    For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant as 6.6×10−346.6 \times 10^{-34} J s)

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  43. 43
    In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction:

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  44. 44
    A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface? (Consider the density of water = 1000 kg m−3^{-3}, 1 atm = 1×1051 \times 10^5 Pa and gravitational acceleration g=10g = 10 m/s2^2)

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  45. 45
    Match List I with List II:
    List-I (Electromagnetic wave)List-II (Production)
    A. MicrowaveI. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level
    B. Visible lightII. Radioactive decay of nucleus
    C. Gamma raysIII. Vibration of atoms and molecules
    D. Infra-red raysIV. Klystron valve or magnetron valve
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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Chemistry

45 questions

  1. 46
    Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines. A. (i) LiAlH4_4; (ii) H2_2O B. Sn + HCl C. H2_2/Ni D. Na(Hg)/C2_2H5_5OH E. Br2_2/aq. NaOH Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  2. 47
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Transition metal/compound/complex)List II (Catalytic Role)
    A. V2_2O5_5I. Preparation of ammonia from N2_2/H2_2 mixture
    B. FeII. Polymerisation of alkynes
    C. PdCl2_2III. Preparation of H2_2SO4_4 and SO2_2
    D. Ni complexIV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  3. 48
    Consider the following reaction :
    2A(g)+B(g)→2D(g)2A(g) + B(g) \rightarrow 2D(g)
    ΔU⊖=−10 kJ mol−1\Delta U^\ominus = -10\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1} and ΔS⊖=−44 JK−1\Delta S^\ominus = -44\ \text{JK}^{-1} at 298 K. Identify the correct option with ΔG⊖\Delta G^\ominus for the reaction and spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K. (Given : R = 8.31 J mol−1^{-1} K−1^{-1})

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  4. 49
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Quantum Numbers) n, lList II (Orbital)
    A. n=2, l=1I. 3d
    B. n=4, l=0II. 2p
    C. n=5, l=3III. 4s
    D. n=3, l=2IV. 5f
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  5. 50
    In a qualitative analysis, Bi3+^{3+} is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K.
    BiO(OH)(s)⇌BiO+(aq)+OH−(aq), K=4×10−10\text{BiO(OH)(s)} \rightleftharpoons \text{BiO}^{+}(aq) + \text{OH}^{-}(aq),\ K = 4 \times 10^{-10}
    (Given : log2 = 0.3010)

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  6. 51
    The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is

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  7. 52
    The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is : (1) CH3_3CH2_2CH2_2OH and CH3_3–CH(OH)–CH3_3 (2) CH3_3CH2_2CH2_2CH2_2CH3_3 and (CH3_3)2_2CHCH2_2CH3_3 (3) CH3_3COCH3_3 (propan-2-one) and CH3_3CH2_2CHO (propanal) (4) CH3_3OCH2_2CH2_2CH3_3 and CH3_3CH2_2OCH2_2CH3_3

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  8. 53
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Complex)List II (Type of isomerism)
    A. [Pt(NH3_3)2_2Cl2_2]I. Optical
    B. [Co(en)3_3]3+^{3+}II. Solvate
    C. [Co(NH3_3)5_5NO2_2]Cl2_2III. Geometrical
    D. [Cr(H2_2O)6_6]Cl3_3IV. Linkage
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  9. 54
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Order of reaction)List II (Unit of rate constant)
    A. Zero orderI. mol−1^{-1} L s−1^{-1}
    B. First orderII. mol−2^{-2} L2^2 s−1^{-1}
    C. Second orderIII. s−1^{-1}
    D. Third orderIV. mol L−1^{-1} s−1^{-1}
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  10. 55
    The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :
    CH3–CH2–CH(CH2CH3)–CH2–CH(CH3)–CH2–CH3\text{CH}_3\text{–CH}_2\text{–CH(CH}_2\text{CH}_3)\text{–CH}_2\text{–CH(CH}_3)\text{–CH}_2\text{–CH}_3
    (A 3-ethyl and 5-methyl substituted heptane chain.)

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  11. 56
    A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is 4.42×10−194.42 \times 10^{-19} J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?

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  12. 57
    Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form :

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  13. 58
    Compound P (C8_8H8_8O) gives a red orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and it does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic product Q that produces effervescence on treating with aq. NaHCO3_3. Compounds P and Q, respectively, are : (1) P = acetophenone (C6_6H5_5COCH3_3); Q = phenylglyoxylic acid (C6_6H5_5COCOOH) (2) P = 4-methylbenzaldehyde (p-CH3_3-C6_6H4_4-CHO); Q = 4-methylbenzoic acid (p-CH3_3-C6_6H4_4-COOH) (3) P = 4-methylbenzaldehyde (p-CH3_3-C6_6H4_4-CHO); Q = terephthalic acid (HOOC-C6_6H4_4-COOH) (4) P = acetophenone (C6_6H5_5COCH3_3); Q = benzoic acid (C6_6H5_5COOH)

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  14. 59
    Match List I with List II :
    List IList II
    A. C2_2H4_4I. 3 σ\sigma bonds, 2 π\pi bonds
    B. C2_2H2_2II. 3 σ\sigma bonds, one lone pair
    C. CH4_4III. 4 σ\sigma bonds
    D. NH3_3IV. 5 σ\sigma bonds, 1 π\pi bond
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  15. 60
    The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z.
    C2H5Cl→XZ\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Cl} \xrightarrow{X} Z
    C2H5CONH2→Br2, NaOHY→ΔCHCl3/ethanolic KOHZ\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{CONH}_2 \xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2,\ \text{NaOH}} Y \xrightarrow[\Delta]{\text{CHCl}_3/\text{ethanolic KOH}} Z
    X and Z, respectively, are :

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  16. 61
    The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is: (Given: Molar mass of urea : 60 g mol−1^{-1}; NA_A : 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23} particles mol−1^{-1})

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  17. 62
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

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  18. 63
    Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?

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  19. 64
    The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is

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  20. 65
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  21. 66
    Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:

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  22. 67
    In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are :
    CH3CH2CH2–OH+PCl5→CH3CH2CH2Cl+X+HCl\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{–OH} + \text{PCl}_5 \rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{Cl} + X + \text{HCl}
    CH3CH2CH2Cl→Δalc. KOHY→(C6H5CO)2O2HBrZ\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{Cl} \xrightarrow[\Delta]{\text{alc. KOH}} Y \xrightarrow[(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CO})_2\text{O}_2]{\text{HBr}} Z

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  23. 68
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Complex/ion)List II (Shape/geometry)
    A. [Pt(Cl2_2)(NH3_3)2_2](I) Octahedral
    B. [Co(NH3_3)6_6]Cl3_3(II) Trigonal bipyramidal
    C. [NiCl4_4]2−^{2-}(III) Square planar
    D. [Fe(CO)5_5](IV) Tetrahedral
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  24. 69
    The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is :

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  25. 70
    Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence.
    Benzene+CH3Cl→Anhydr. AlCl3W→dil. H2SO4 warmdil. HNO3X+Y\text{Benzene} + \text{CH}_3\text{Cl} \xrightarrow{\text{Anhydr. AlCl}_3} W \xrightarrow[\text{dil. H}_2\text{SO}_4\ \text{warm}]{\text{dil. HNO}_3} X + Y
    The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is :

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  26. 71
    Identify the correct statements : (A) The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass : 60 g mol−1^{-1}) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m. (B) The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass : 40 g mol−1^{-1}) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K. (C) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water. (D) The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure. (E) For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are nA_A and nB_B respectively. The mole fraction of B will be xB=nAnA+nBx_B = \dfrac{n_A}{n_A + n_B}. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  27. 72
    During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from :

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  28. 73
    A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is : (Given : Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol−1^{-1}; 1 F = 96487 C mol−1^{-1})

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  29. 74
    At a certain temperature, T (K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is :

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  30. 75
    For a certain reaction R →\rightarrow Product, the plot of concentration [R] vs time has a negative slope as shown (a straight line with k = -slope). The order of reaction is :

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  31. 76
    Identify the correct statement about ClF3_3 from the following options :

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  32. 77
    In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute H2_2SO4_4 was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion from the following :

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  33. 78
    At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X−^- and HX, Kb_b for X−^- is 10−10^{-10}. What is the pH of this buffer solution?

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  34. 79
    Calculate emf of the half cell given below : Pt (s) | H2_2(g, 2 atm) | HCl (aq, 0.02 M) EH2/H+∘=0E^\circ_{\text{H}_2/\text{H}^+} = 0 V (Given: 2.303 RTF=0.059\dfrac{2.303\,RT}{F} = 0.059, log 2 = 0.3010)

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  35. 80
    The calculated 'spin-only' magnetic moment of Ti2+^{2+} (3d2^2) is :

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  36. 81
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

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  37. 82
    The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are : (Structure of ozone O3_3: central oxygen labelled 1 is double-bonded to oxygen labelled 2 and single-bonded to oxygen labelled 3.)

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  38. 83
    Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is:

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  39. 84
    When 1 dm3^3 of CO2_2 gas is passed over hot coke the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 dm3^3. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is:

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  40. 85
    The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is
    C2H6→UV lightCl2X (monochlorinated product)→NH3Y→(ii)H2O(i)NaNO2/HClZ\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 \xrightarrow[\text{UV light}]{\text{Cl}_2} X\ (\text{monochlorinated product}) \xrightarrow{\text{NH}_3} Y \xrightarrow[(\text{ii}) \text{H}_2\text{O}]{(\text{i}) \text{NaNO}_2/\text{HCl}} Z

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  41. 86
    Given below is an expression for the rate constant of a first-order reaction occurring at a certain temperature, T (K).
    ln⁡k=14.34−1.25×104T\ln k = 14.34 - \dfrac{1.25 \times 10^4}{T}
    The energy of activation in kcal mol−1^{-1} for the reaction is : (Given: k in s−1^{-1}, R = 1.987 cal mol−1^{-1} K−1^{-1})

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  42. 87
    Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which KP≠KCK_P \neq K_C.

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  43. 88
    Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

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  44. 89
    Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law due to :

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  45. 90
    The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are :
    Benzene+6Cl2→dark, coldAnhydr. AlCl3X\text{Benzene} + 6\text{Cl}_2 \xrightarrow[\text{dark, cold}]{\text{Anhydr. AlCl}_3} X
    Benzene+3Cl2→500 KUVY\text{Benzene} + 3\text{Cl}_2 \xrightarrow[500\ \text{K}]{\text{UV}} Y

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Biology

90 questions

  1. 91
    In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

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  2. 92
    In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?

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  3. 93
    In the lac operon, the z gene codes for

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  4. 94
    Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called

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  5. 95
    Match List I with List II:
    List-IList-II
    A.Genetically modified organism(I)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
    B.Thermostable DNA polymerase(II)Bt cotton
    C.Ti plasmid(III)Thermus aquaticus
    D.pBR322(IV)Escherichia coli
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  6. 96
    Match List I with List II:
    List IList II
    A.ProductivityI.Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses
    B.Net primary productivityII.Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
    C.Gross primary productivityIII.Rate of biomass production
    D.Secondary productivityIV.Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  7. 97
    Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

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  8. 98
    Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

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  9. 99
    The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :

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  10. 100
    Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :

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  11. 101
    Match List I with List II:
    List-I (Phase of cell cycle)List-II (Activity)
    A.G1G_1 phaseI.Actual cell division occurs
    B.S phaseII.Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA
    C.G2G_2 PhaseIII.Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles
    D.M phaseIV.Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  12. 102
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  13. 103
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  14. 104
    Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

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  15. 105
    Match List I with List II:
    List-IList-II
    A.DecompositionI.Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance
    B.DetritusII.Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil
    C.MineralisationIII.Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances.
    D.HumificationIV.Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  16. 106
    Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

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  17. 107
    2(C51H98C6)+145 O2→102 CO2+98 H2O+energy2(C_{51}H_{98}C_6) + 145\ O_2 \to 102\ CO_2 + 98\ H_2O + \text{energy} The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be :

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  18. 108
    Match List I with List II :
    List-IList-II
    A.Incomplete dominanceI.Human skin colour
    B.Co-dominanceII.Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
    C.PleiotropyIII.Phenylketonuria disease in humans
    D.Polygenic inheritanceIV.ABO blood groups
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  19. 109
    Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  20. 110
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix ? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  21. 111
    Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C4C_4 plants use the C3C_3 pathway of CO2CO_2 fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C4C_4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C3C_3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below:

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  22. 112
    Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence. A. Digestion of cell walls. B. Isolation of naked protoplasts. C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast. D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieites of plants. E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  23. 113
    Match List-I with List-II :
    List-IList-II
    A.Conjunctive tissueI.Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells
    B.Casparian stripsII.Endodermal cells rich in starch
    C.Subsidiary cellsIII.Tissue between xylem and phloem
    D.Starch sheathIV.Endodermal cells with suberin deposition
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  24. 114
    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

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  25. 115
    Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Growth Regulator)List-II (Function/Effect)
    A.2,4-DI.Brewing industry
    B.GA3GA_3II.Stimulation of stomatal closure
    C.KinetinIII.Herbicide
    D.ABAIV.Nutrient mobilisation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  26. 116
    The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is

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  27. 117
    How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

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  28. 118
    Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family?

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  29. 119
    Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?

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  30. 120
    Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below :

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  31. 121
    In racemose inflorescence, __________.

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  32. 122
    Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis : A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  33. 123
    Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  34. 124
    Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  35. 125
    Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

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  36. 126
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  37. 127
    "The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

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  38. 128
    Match List-I with List-II:
    List-I (Process)List-II (Location)
    A.GlycolysisI.Inner mitochondrial membrane
    B.ETSII.Mitochondrial matrix
    C.Accumulation of protonsIII.Cytoplasm
    D.Krebs' cycleIV.Intermembrane space
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  39. 129
    Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

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  40. 130
    Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

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  41. 131
    Match List I with List II :
    List I (Placentation)List II (Example)
    A.MarginalI.Mustard
    B.AxileII.Pea
    C.ParietalIII.Marigold
    D.BasalIV.Lemon
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  42. 132
    The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included : A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  43. 133
    Match List I with List II :
    List IList II
    A.TrypsinI.Intercellular ground substance
    B.MorphineII.Lectin
    C.Concanavalin AIII.Enzyme
    D.CollagenIV.Alkaloid
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  44. 134
    Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  45. 135
    Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?

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  46. 136
    Match List I with List II:
    List-IList-II
    A.CortisolI.Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands
    B.AldosteroneII.Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
    C.CholecystokininIII.Stimulates reabsorption of Na+^+ and water from renal tubule
    D.ProgesteroneIV.Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  47. 137
    Arrange the following events occuring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na+^+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone. E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  48. 138
    In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order. A. Diffusion of O2_2 and CO2_2 between blood and tissues B. Diffusion of O2_2 and CO2_2 across alveolar membrane C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2_2 rich alveolar air is released out D. Cellular respiration E. Transport of gases by the blood Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  49. 139
    The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order. A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bte. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  50. 140
    Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

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  51. 141
    The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes: C∣X−C∣Y→EX−Y+C=C\overset{X}{\underset{|}{C}} - \overset{Y}{\underset{|}{C}} \xrightarrow{E} X - Y + C = C (Substrate) →\rightarrow (Product) (Product) Identify the enzymes class 'E' from the following options:

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  52. 142
    The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on __________.

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  53. 143
    What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively?

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  54. 144
    Match List-I with List-II.
    List-I (Respiratory Volume)List-II (Capacity in mL)
    A.ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume)I.2500 – 3000 mL
    B.RV (Residual Volume)II.500 mL
    C.IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)III.1000 – 1100 mL
    D.TV (Tidal Volume)IV.1100 – 1200 mL
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  55. 145
    Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

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  56. 146
    Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below

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  57. 147
    A group of researchers procured some fish like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

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  58. 148
    Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms
    List-IList-II
    A.About 65 mya(I)Jawless fish probably evolved
    B.About 500 mya(II)The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
    C.About 350 mya(III)Seaweeds and few plants probably existed
    D.About 320 mya(IV)Invertebrates were formed and became active
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  59. 149
    Match List I and List II
    List-IList-II
    A.Progestasert(I)Barrier made of rubber used by females
    B.Multiload 375(II)Oral contraceptive
    C.Diaphragm(III)Hormone releasing IUD
    D.Saheli(IV)Copper releasing IUD
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  60. 150
    The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?

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  61. 151
    Match List I with List II:
    List I (Drug)List II (Effect)
    A.NicotineI.Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy
    B.MorphineII.Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation
    C.HeroinIII.Effective sedative and painkiller
    D.CocaineIV.A depressant; slows down body function
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  62. 152
    The human protein named α\alpha-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.

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  63. 153
    Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes:

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  64. 154
    Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below:

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  65. 155
    Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.

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  66. 156
    Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?

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  67. 157
    Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping. A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh−ve^{-ve} blood and mother with Rh+ve^{+ve} blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh−ve^{-ve} and the foetus is Rh+ve^{+ve}. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child. Choose the answer from the options given below:

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  68. 158
    Match List I with List II:
    List I (Bioactive molecules)List II (Importance)
    A.StreptokinaseI.Immunosuppressive agent
    B.StatinsII.Removal of clots from the blood vessels
    C.LipasesIII.Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
    D.Cyclosporin AIV.Detergent formulations
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  69. 159
    Match List I with List II:
    List IList II
    A.MolluscsI.Pulmonary respiration only
    B.ReptilesII.Branchial respiration
    C.Adult amphibiansIII.Cellular respiration
    D.AmoebaIV.Pulmonary and cutaneous respiration
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  70. 160
    The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.

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  71. 161
    Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction. A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca++^{++} into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca++^{++} inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  72. 162
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  73. 163
    Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions statements to produce sperms. Select the correct from the following: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  74. 164
    The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ______ related to the same nephron.

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  75. 165
    Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?

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  76. 166
    Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  77. 167
    Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy:
    List-IList-II
    A.The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head(I)24 weeks of pregnancy
    B.The foetus develops limbs and digits(II)20 weeks of pregnancy
    C.The foetus develops external genital organs(III)8 weeks of pregnancy
    D.The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed(IV)12 weeks of pregnancy
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  78. 168
    In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.

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  79. 169
    In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?

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  80. 170
    Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  81. 171
    What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese'?

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  82. 172
    The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would contrl cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?

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  83. 173
    Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:

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  84. 174
    Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

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  85. 175
    Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions. A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  86. 176
    Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell. A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  87. 177
    Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system:
    List IList II
    A.Tetany(I)Inflammation of joints
    B.Arthritis(II)Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
    C.Myasthenia gravis(III)Wild contraction in muscle due to low Ca++^{++} in body fluid
    D.Muscular dystrophy(IV)Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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  88. 178
    Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:

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  89. 179
    The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:

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  90. 180
    Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species. A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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