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SSC CGL Tier I, 14 Sep 2025, Shift 2 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 60 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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General Intelligence and Reasoning

25 questions

  1. 1
    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. GHZ, HIY, IJX, JKW, ?

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  2. 2
    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. RXD RUJ RRP ROV ?

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  3. 3
    If '÷\div' means '+', '-' means '×\times', '+' means '-' and, '×\times' means '÷\div', then which of the following equations is CORRECT?

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  4. 4
    What comes next? 3, 8, 18, 35, 61, ?

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  5. 5
    Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: The rapid advancement of automation and artificial intelligence could lead to significant job displacement, but it also presents an opportunity to create new jobs in emerging industries. Assumptions: I. Automation and AI could cause job losses in some sectors. II. New industries will emerge as a result of automation and AI. III. The displacement caused by automation is temporary and will be reversed by new industries.

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  6. 6
    The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word FRIEND is arranged in alphabetical order?

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  7. 7
    Identify the similar address: Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad , 121002

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  8. 8
    Each of the letters in the word UNIVERSAL is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fifth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

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  9. 9
    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

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  10. 10
    In each of the following questions, a specific pattern of alphabetic transformation has been applied to the first word to produce the second. Identify that pattern and apply it to the third word to determine the correct option. DEVIL : ABSFI :: OTHER : ?

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  11. 11
    In each of the following questions, the second word is derived from the first word by applying a specific letter-coding pattern, such as shifting letters forward or backward in the alphabet. Identify the pattern and apply it to the third word to choose the correct answer from the options given. MASTER : OCUVGT :: LABOUR : ?

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  12. 12
    Complete the series. 11, 13, 17, 19, ?

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  13. 13
    In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

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  14. 14
    A box has 5 red, 3 blue, 2 green balls. Probability of drawing a non-green ball?

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  15. 15
    If 9 @ 3 = 36 and 6 @ 2 = 16, then 8 @ 2 = ?

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  16. 16
    Instruction: In a code language, “The music sounds sweet” is coded as “la ma na ta”, “The music sounds loud” is coded as “la ma pa ta”, “The song sounds sweet” is coded as “ka ma na ta”. Question: What is the code for “The song sounds loud”?

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  17. 17
    If 'ABCDE' is coded as 'EDCBA', 'FGHIJ' is coded as 'JIHGF', and 'KLMNO' is coded as 'ONMLK', then how is 'PQRST' coded?

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  18. 18
    If 9 3=18,83 = 18, 8 2 = 12, then what is 6 $ 4?

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  19. 19
    A 25 L solution has sugar: water = 3:2. How much water to make sugar: water = 1:1?

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  20. 20
    Ravi is married to Rekha. Rekha’s brother is Ramesh. Ramesh’s wife is Rina. Rina’s son is Raj. How is Raj related to Ravi?

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  21. 21
    Pointing to a man, Seema said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother's father.' How is the man related to Seema?

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  22. 22
    After interchanging + & ×\times and 15 & 30, which of the following equations will hold true?

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  23. 23
    In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $\text{\textdollar}, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: P @ Q ⇒P≥Q\Rightarrow P \ge Q P # Q ⇒P≤Q\Rightarrow P \le Q P $Q⇒P<QP \text{ \textdollar } Q \Rightarrow P < Q P © Q ⇒P>Q\Rightarrow P > Q P % Q ⇒P=Q\Rightarrow P = Q Statements: M © N N # O Conclusions: I. M © O II. M @ O

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  24. 24
    If '+' means '×\times', '×\times' means '-', '-' means '÷\div', then 20+5×2−1020 + 5 \times 2 - 10 = ?

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  25. 25
    A two-digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 18 more than the original. What is the number?

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General Awareness

25 questions

  1. 26
    Which of the following best describes the cultural significance of "Mim" in the "Mim Kut festival"?

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  2. 27
    The Kharchi Puja of Tripura is associated with worship of how many deities?

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  3. 28
    Consider the following statements about Mughal architecture: 1.Mughal architecture is known for blending Persian, Islamic, Turkish, and Indian styles to create a unique Indo-Islamic aesthetic. 2.Red sandstone and white marble were the two most commonly used materials in Mughal construction.

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  4. 29
    Which of the following is a correct statement regarding violations in basketball?

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  5. 30
    Which sports player won the bronze medal in the Mixed Team Compound Open Archery event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?

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  6. 31
    Where was the Americas Regional Office of the New Development Bank (NDB) announced to be established during the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting in 2018?

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  7. 32
    Which of the following statements best captures the essence of the book Because Words Matter?

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  8. 33
    Which of the following statements about rockslide is correct?

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  9. 34
    What correctly describes Neeraj Chopra's performance at the Paris Diamond League 2025?

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  10. 35
    Following a significant change in leadership at India's premier space agency, which distinguished scientist was appointed as the new Chairman of ISRO and Secretary of the Department of Space in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath?

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  11. 36
    Which of the following statements about dams is/are correct? 1.A dam always refers to a concrete or structural wall built to block water. 2.Spillways in dams help in regulating water flow, either intermittently or continuously. 3.Dams can be classified based on structure, purpose, and height.

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  12. 37
    Aditya-L1 spacecraft primarily studies which part of the Sun?

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  13. 38
    Which group consists of non-ferrous metallic minerals that are scarce in India?

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  14. 39
    Fill in the blanks: Zonal Councils were created by the ________ Act, 1956.

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  15. 40
    Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State legislatures is correct?

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  16. 41
    Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The PSLV-C59 mission, launched in October 2024, achieved a notable milestone for international space cooperation. Reason (R): This mission successfully deployed the Proba-3 satellites, marking the first dedicated satellite launch for ESA's unique formation-flying experiment.

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  17. 42
    Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) ensures access to FIR through which portal?

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  18. 43
    Which of the following pairs of Government Scheme and its associated Nodal Ministry/Department is correctly matched? 1. PM-AASHA – Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution 2. e-NAM – Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare 3. PMKSY – Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation 4. RODTEP – Ministry of Finance

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  19. 44
    Fill in the Blank: Panthi dance is linked to the followers of ______ in Chhattisgarh.

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  20. 45
    According to the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) findings, how does corruption most directly undermine global climate action?

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  21. 46
    Objective of India's new Eco-Tourism Policy in protected areas?

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  22. 47
    Which of the following statements about the sugar industry is/are correct? 1. Sugarcane's sucrose content decreases during transportation. 2. Sugar industry is seasonal in nature. 3. The industry is unsuitable for cooperative management. 4. Major sugar-producing states include Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

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  23. 48
    Which of the following statements correctly describe the MISHTI initiative launched in India? 1. The MISHTI programme is designed to increase mangrove forest cover and enhance livelihood opportunities in coastal areas. 2. It is a project initiated under the Ministry of Rural Development. 3. The program is financed with a mix of fundings coming from the CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority) Fund and the MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme).

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  24. 49
    Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Kalbelia performers rarely document their art due to its oral nomadic heritage. 2. Costumes avoid stitched elements in honor of serpent rituals. 3. The community's art was included in UNESCO ICH list without any written application process.

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  25. 50
    Consider the following statements: 1. Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill. 2. Every Financial Bill is a Money Bill. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions

  1. 51
    If M : N = 4:54 : 5, N : O = 6:76 : 7, and O : P = 9:119 : 11, then find N : P.

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  2. 52
    What is the result of214÷0.52\frac{1}{4} \div 0.5?

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  3. 53
    What should be subtracted from 10, 12, 13, 16 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?

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  4. 54
    If 45%45\% of a number is 0.9 more than 30%30\% of it, what is the number?

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  5. 55
    Sohan started a business with ₹90,000. After 5 months, Rohan joined with ₹1,50,000. After another 3 months, Sohan withdrew ₹30,000. What is the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?

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  6. 56
    Two individuals, A and B, rent a pasture together. A has 18 horses that they graze for 4 months. B grazes 24 cows for 6 months and 36 sheep for 4 months. The following relationships are given: - 3 horses are equivalent to 6 cows, - 4 cows are equivalent to 8 sheep. What amount of rent should A pay ?

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  7. 57
    X, Y, and Z started a business with capitals in the ratio 2:3:52:3:5. After 3 months, Z withdrew 40%40\% of his capital. After another 3 months, Y withdrew half of his capital. The business continued for a total of 18 months. If total profit is ₹3,24,000, find the ratio of profit shares of X : Y : Z.

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  8. 58
    The average age of 40 students in a class is 16 years. When a new student is admitted, the average increases by 0.2 years. What is the age of the new student?

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  9. 59
    The monthly average salary for 8 employees plus one supervisor is ₹15,000. If the supervisor earns ₹25,000, what is the average salary of the 8 employees?

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  10. 60
    A company has 80 employees, of whom 35 %35\ \% are women. The average monthly salary of the women is ₹72,000, while that of the men is ₹68,000. What is the overall average monthly salary (in ₹ 000) of the whole workforce?

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  11. 61
    A dress is marked at ₹3,500. A discount offer changes from 10%10\% to 15%15\%. How much extra discount does a customer get?

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  12. 62
    Rohan ordered 5 kg of premium coffee and some additional kilograms of ordinary coffee. The price of the premium coffee per kg was three times that of the ordinary coffee. When the order was delivered, it was found that the quantities of premium and ordinary coffee had been swapped. This change increased his bill by 40%40\%. Find the ratio of the original quantity of premium coffee to the original quantity of ordinary coffee.

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  13. 63
    A certain amount grows to ₹6400 in 2 years and ₹7040 in 3 years. Determine the interest rate.

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  14. 64
    A bookseller sells 10 pens for ₹300, but in doing so, he incurs a loss equal to the cost price of 4 pens. The loss percent is:

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  15. 65
    A fruit seller buys three varieties of mangoes. The first variety is bought at 4 for ₹10, the second at 5 for ₹12, and the third at 2 for ₹5. He mixes them in the ratio 2:3:12 : 3 : 1 respectively. If he sells all the mangoes at 3 for ₹7, what is his approximate gain or loss percentage?

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  16. 66
    A dealer sets the marked price of a television 20%20\% higher than its cost price. If he gives a discount of 15%15\% and makes a profit of ₹300, what is the cost price of the television?

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  17. 67
    A merchant marked an article such that its price was 25%25\% above its cost price. He offered two consecutive discounts of 10%10\% and 20%20\% to a buyer. If he incurred a loss of ₹400, what was the marked price of the article?

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  18. 68
    A drum contains a blend of three chemicals: P, Q, and R, in the ratio of 3:5:23:5:2. 30 litres of this blend are removed, and then 12 litres of chemical P and 8 litres of chemical Q are poured into the drum. If the resultant quantity of chemical Q is 20 litres more than the resultant quantity of chemical P, what was the initial total quantity of the mixture in the drum (in litres)?

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  19. 69
    Rahul borrowed a sum of money at simple interest of 5%5\% per annum for the first 3 years, 7%7\% per annum for the next 5 years, and 9%9\% per annum for the period beyond 8 years. If he pays a total of ₹6800 as interest only at the end of 10 years, how much money did he borrow?

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  20. 70
    A cone is such that the area of its base equals its lateral surface area. If radius is r, find the slant height l.

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  21. 71
    A square field of side 28 m has a circular pond in the center. If the area of the pond is 616 m2616\ \text{m}^2, what is the area of the remaining field?

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  22. 72
    If the height of a right prism is increased by 50%50\% and base area remains the same, what is the percentage increase in volume?

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  23. 73
    A circular decorative wall clock with a radius of 20 cm has a design where a chord connects two points on the circumference. This chord, along with two radii, forms an equilateral triangle at the center of the clock face. The smaller segment created by this chord is painted in a contrasting color. What percentage of the clock's total area does this smaller painted segment represent? (Use π≈3.14\pi \approx 3.14, 3≈1.732\sqrt{3} \approx 1.732)

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  24. 74
    A cylinder (r = 4 cm, h = 10 cm) is bored through by a hole (r = 2 cm, full height). What percentage of original volume is removed?

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  25. 75
    A sector of a circle with a radius of 15 cm has a central angle of 45∘45^\circ. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of π/4\pi/4 radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector?

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English Comprehension

25 questions

  1. 76
    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: CALLOW

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  2. 77
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Placatory

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  3. 78
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Blow hot and cold

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  4. 79
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Fulsome

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  5. 80
    Spot the correct spelling of body-position sense.

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  6. 81
    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A statement that appears self-contradictory yet may be true'.

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  7. 82
    Select the correct option: Scarcely had the satellite deployed ___ it transmitted its first data packet.

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  8. 83
    Select the correct option: ___ having completed the feasibility study, the team requested additional funding.

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  9. 84
    Select the correct option: It was imperative that the document ___ signed before the close of business.

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  10. 85
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The perception that the guidelines are optional (1)/ rather than compulsory have led (2)/ to widespread inconsistencies in compliance (3)/ across state-level implementations. (4)

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  11. 86
    Change the following from active to passive: Historians may well reinterpret the artifact after new evidence emerges.

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  12. 87
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The fact that dissenting opinions are stifled (1)/ without due institutional safeguards (2)/ reflect a worrying trend in democratic regression (3)/ observed across multiple levels of governance. (4)

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  13. 88
    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The tripos system at Cambridge remains a model of academic rigor.

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  14. 89
    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The land is believed to have been acquired illegally by the company through forged documents.

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  15. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.
    90
    Which of the following best captures the essence of Test cricket, as described in the passage?

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  16. 91
    Which of the following is a criticism of ODIs mentioned in the passage?

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  17. 92
    How are Test cricket and ODIs contrasted in terms of viewer appeal?

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  18. 93
    What tone does the author adopt toward the preservation of Test cricket?

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  19. 94
    What is the central concern raised in the passage?

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  20. 95
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: I was discussing about the issue with him.

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  21. 96
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: You must prevent your brother to do such things.

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  22. 97
    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said to me, “Open the window.”

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  23. 98
    A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. She said that they had already left before she arrived.

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  24. 99
    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This process, known as photosynthesis, is fundamental to life on Earth as it forms the base of most food webs. 2. Plants, algae, and some bacteria possess a unique ability to convert light energy into chemical energy. 3. The captured light energy is then used to synthesize glucose molecules from water and carbon dioxide. 4. It begins with the absorption of photons by chlorophyll pigments within the plant cells.

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  25. 100
    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This process, a crucial part of the plant’s life cycle, is vital for the continued existence of many plant species. 2. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part. 3. The transfer can be carried out by various agents, including insects, birds, and wind. 4. Successful pollination leads to fertilization and the subsequent production of seeds and fruits.

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