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SSC CGL Tier I, 16 Sep 2025, Shift 2 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 60 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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General Intelligence and Reasoning

25 questions

  1. 1
    Count consonants between the 2nd2^{nd} and 7th7^{th} letter of TECHNOLOGY.

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  2. 2
    Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. 56/A, Greenwood Villa,Salt Lake City, Kolkata,West Bengal - 700091

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  3. 3
    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: H D Z L G B P J D T M F ?

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  4. 4
    A is the brother of B. B is the daughter of C. How is A related to C?

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  5. 5
    B is the sister of A. A is the brother of C. C is the daughter of D. How is B related to D?

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  6. 6
    What comes next: 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, ?

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  7. 7
    Choose the group in which all numbers belong to the same category:

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  8. 8
    What will come at the place of question mark? 4, 10, 22, 46, 94, ?

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  9. 9
    Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: Despite the unpredictability of future technologies, regulatory frameworks must evolve to preempt ethical crises. Assumptions: I. Unregulated technological growth can cause ethical dilemmas. II. Ethical standards are often retrofitted to existing technology. III. Regulatory systems can always accurately predict technological outcomes.

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  10. 10
    Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: The education ministry has made moral education compulsory in schools. Conclusions: I. Students must attend moral education classes. II. Schools were not offering moral education earlier.

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  11. 11
    Arrange the following in chronological order (Based on Age/History): 1. Industrial Revolution 2. Bronze Age 3. Information Age 4. Iron Age 5. Stone Age

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  12. 12
    Choose the correct option to complete the series. Needle : Sew :: Keyboard : ?

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  13. 13
    Find the word that does not fit in the series: Complex, Intricate, Sophisticated, Simple, Elaborate

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  14. 14
    Find the unit that does not fit in the series: Kelvin, Celsius, Fahrenheit, Joule, Rankine

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  15. 15
    In each of the following questions, a specific rearrangement of letters has been applied to the first word to form the second. Apply the same rearrangement pattern to the third word and choose the correct answer from the given options. METAPHOR : EMATHPRO :: NORMAL : ?

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  16. 16
    In each of the following questions, a word is transformed into a combination of letters and numbers following a specific pattern. Analyze the transformation used in the first pair and apply the same rule to find the missing term in the second pair. BOAT : C40U :: JUMP : ?

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  17. 17
    Which of these words will come last in a dictionary?

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  18. 18
    Comprehension: In a certain number system there are only two notations to represent numbers: Δ\Delta and β\beta. 0 is represented by Δ\Delta and 1 by β\beta. The subsequent numbers are represented in the following manner: 2 is represented as βΔ\beta\Delta, 3 is represented as ββ\beta\beta, 4 is represented as βΔΔ\beta\Delta\Delta, 5 is represented as βΔβ\beta\Delta\beta and so on. How will you represent 81 in the given number system?

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  19. 19
    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

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  20. 20
    In a certain code language, WATER is written as YCVGT. How is VAPOR written in that code?

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  21. 21
    A principal amount of ₹1,000 yields a simple interest of ₹180 over a period of 2 years. What is the annual rate of simple interest?

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  22. 22
    If 3 @ 4 = 19, 5 @ 6 = 41, then what is 6 @ 7?

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  23. 23
    "If the given symbols mean: '+' means 'divided by' '-' means 'multiplied by' 'x' means 'minus' '÷\div' means 'plus' Then, find the value of the following expressions: 60 + 5 - 4 x 10 ÷\div 2=?

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  24. 24
    If '×\times' = '−-', '−-' = '++', '++' = '÷\div', '÷\div' = '×\times', which equation is correct?

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  25. 25
    10 friends went for dinner and planned to split Rs. 200 equally. 2 didn't pay. How much did each of the rest pay?

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General Awareness

25 questions

  1. 26
    What material were the double-storeyed gates of Purana Qila primarily built with?

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  2. 27
    Fill in the blank: The Tusu festival is primarily celebrated in the tribal belt of Jharkhand, especially around the area between _______, Tamar, and Raidih.

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  3. 28
    Who is credited with developing the modern notation system for Hindustani classical music and documenting compositions in the Kramik Pustak Maalika?

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  4. 29
    Consider the following statements about service rules in table tennis: 1) At 10–10, service alternates every two points. 2) In the final doubles game, receiver order changes when one side reaches 5 points. Which of the above is/are correct?

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  5. 30
    Under Pitt's India Act, what restriction was placed on the Governor General and Council?

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  6. 31
    What is meant by an "own goal" in football?

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  7. 32
    Consider the following statements about India's Winter Olympics participation: 1) Shiva Keshavan competed in six Games and introduced luge to India. 2) Arif Mohammad Khan was the first Indian to qualify for two alpine skiing events in 2022. Which of the statements is/are correct?

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  8. 33
    Which 2024 India–Bangladesh energy project involves a 765 kV cross-border transmission line to boost hydroelectric trade across multiple countries?

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  9. 34
    Consider the following statements about the book 'Being Indian' by Pavan K. Varma: 1) The book won the Vodafone Crossword Book Award for exploring Indian identity and culture. 2) It received the Sahitya Akademi Award for its contributions to Indian English poetry. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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  10. 35
    Fill in the blank: Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever gold at the World Athletics Championships in _______ in 2023.

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  11. 36
    Who launched the campaign "Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam " in 2024, encouraging citizens to plant trees in honor of their mothers and Mother Earth?

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  12. 37
    What causes a river to develop meanders?

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  13. 38
    Fill in the Blanks: NISAR maps the global surface every _______.

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  14. 39
    Which of the below statements on the plant hormones is INCORRECT?

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  15. 40
    Which of the following disputes falls under the Supreme Court's exclusive original jurisdiction as per Article 131 of the Indian Constitution?

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  16. 41
    If the resistance of a conductor is doubled while keeping the potential difference across its ends constant, what will happen to the current flowing through it?

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  17. 42
    Under Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS), the period for default bail in minor offences is capped at?

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  18. 43
    Which scheme promotes crop diversification through cluster-based planning?

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  19. 44
    Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): PM2.5 is more harmful than PM10 in AQI. Reason (R): PM2.5 particles are smaller and can reach deep into the lungs and bloodstream.

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  20. 45
    Which national park reported a successful tiger population rise in 2024, reaching over 150 tigers?

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  21. 46
    Fill in the Blank: Doctrine of Severability allows the _______ part of a law to be retained.

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  22. 47
    Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Aluminium smelting is the most important metallurgical industry in India. Reason (R): Aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft, wires, and utensils.

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  23. 48
    Match the dance with its prime social/religious context:
    Dancesocial/religious context
    1. RaufA. Eid & spring-wedding festivities
    2. KarmaB. Bhadra Ekadashi agrarian ritual
    3. TamashaC. Night-long folk-theatre in Shimga season
    4. JhumarD. Post-monsoon tea-garden recreations

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  24. 49
    Which pair correctly matches atmosphere layer & feature?

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  25. 50
    Consider the following statements: 1. The Concurrent List allows both Centre and States to legislate. 2. In case of conflict, State law prevails over Union law. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions

  1. 51
    If p:q=4:1p : q = 4 : 1, find (5p+3q):(5p−3q)(5p + 3q) : (5p - 3q).

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  2. 52
    What is the value of: (18+2)2−(8+2)2(\sqrt{18} + \sqrt{2})^2 - (\sqrt{8} + \sqrt{2})^2

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  3. 53
    Simplify: (56+34)÷(78−13)\left(\frac{5}{6} + \frac{3}{4}\right) \div \left(\frac{7}{8} - \frac{1}{3}\right)

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  4. 54
    A, B, and C invested ₹24,000, ₹36,000, and ₹40,000 respectively. A's investment was for 12 months, B's for 8 months, and C's for 6 months. The total profit is ₹50,000. What is B’s share of the profit?

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  5. 55
    The average age of a committee of 9 members increases by 3 years when two men aged 42 and 44 years are replaced by two women. What is the average age of these two women?

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  6. 56
    There are 6 consecutive integers and 5 consecutive integers. The average of the 6 integers is 2 less than the average of the 5 integers. The sum of the 5 integers is 4 more than the sum of the 6 integers. Find the average of the 6 integers.

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  7. 57
    Seventy-five percent of a number is 15 more than two-thirds of that number. Find the number.

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  8. 58
    A TV set is available for ₹19,650 in cash or for ₹3,100 as a cash down payment and three equal annual instalments. If the shopkeeper charges interest at the rate of 10%10\% per annum compounded annually, calculate the amount of each instalment.

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  9. 59
    A mobile phone retailer sells a phone for ₹P and earns a profit of 20%20\%. For a special festive offer, he marks the same phone at ₹1.5P. At the offer, he provides a discount of 10%10\%. What will be the percentage profit that he will make during the festive offer?

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  10. 60
    A gadget is sold at a 15%15\% discount on its marked price. This sale leads to a profit of 20%20\% on its cost price. If the profit earned is ₹450, what would have been the selling price if the gadget was sold at a 25%25\% discount on its marked price?

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  11. 61
    A, B, and C can complete a certain task in 20, 30, and 60 days, respectively. How many days will it take for A to finish the work if he receives help from B and C every third day?

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  12. 62
    Two distinct grades of rice, one priced at ₹80 per kilogram and the other at ₹120 per kilogram, are amalgamated in an undisclosed proportion. The resultant blend is retailed at ₹132 per kilogram, securing a profit margin of 20%20\% on the overall cost price. Determine the precise ratio in which the two rice varieties were intermingled.

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  13. 63
    The ratio of the speeds of a car and a bus is 3:43 : 4. If the bus covers a distance of 320 km in 4 hours, what is the speed of the car in km/h?

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  14. 64
    An individual invested certain amounts in three different schemes P, Q, and R at simple interest rates of 7%7\% p.a., 9%9\% p.a., and 11%11\% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one year was ₹2520 and the amount invested in Scheme R was 250%250\% of the amount invested in Scheme P and 300%300\% of the amount invested in Scheme Q, what was the amount invested in Scheme P?

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  15. 65
    A tower stands 50 meters tall. From its peak, the angles of depression to the top and bottom of a nearby building are measured at 30∘30^\circ and 45∘45^\circ, respectively. Determine the approximate height of the building as well as the horizontal distance separating the tower from the building.

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  16. 66
    A sphere is melted and recast into 8 identical cones, each with radius 3 cm and height 4 cm. What was the radius of the original sphere?

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  17. 67
    The area of a regular hexagon is made of how many equilateral triangles?

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  18. 68
    A circular fountain with a radius of 7 m is encircled by a grass bed that is 3.5 m wide. Determine the ratio of the area of the grass bed to the area of the fountain.

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  19. 69
    A tent designed as a triangular prism features a triangular base with an area of 20 m2\text{m}^2 and a height of 6 m. What is the volume of this tent?

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  20. 70
    Which line has slope −1-1 and passes through (2,3)(2,3)?

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  21. 71
    Simplify: 45+20−5\sqrt{45} + \sqrt{20} - \sqrt{5}.

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  22. 72
    Three non-overlapping, non-touching circles are drawn in a plane. What is the maximum number of distinct common tangents that can be drawn to them in total?

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  23. 73
    In a circle, chord AB and chord CD intersect at E such that AE : EB = 2:32 : 3 and CE : ED = 5:25 : 2. If AB = xx and CD = y, which of the following is true?

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  24. 74
    A chord in a circle with radius 10 cm subtends an angle of 90∘90^\circ at the center. What is the area of the minor segment?

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  25. 75
    Evaluate: (0.053+0.013)÷(0.253+0.053)(0.05^3 + 0.01^3) \div (0.25^3 + 0.05^3)

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English Comprehension

25 questions

  1. 76
    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: GARRULOUS

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  2. 77
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Incessant

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  3. 78
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Piquant

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  4. 79
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Carry coals to Newcastle

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  5. 80
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Toe the line

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  6. 81
    Which is the correct spelling of a word meaning 'self-rule'?

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  7. 82
    Spot the correct spelling of a 24-hour biological cycle.

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  8. 83
    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Something that is impossible to be read'.

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  9. 84
    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A deep and seemingly bottomless chasm'.

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  10. 85
    Choose the correct phrasal verb: The scientist was unable to _____ a definitive conclusion from the data.

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  11. 86
    Select the correct option: He spoke so ___ that even abstruse theories seemed digestible.

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  12. 87
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: It was the misalignment between projected and actual data (1)/ that cast doubt not only on the calculations (2)/ but also on the assumptions that (3)/ underlied the funding strategy. (4)

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  13. 88
    Change the following from active to passive: Someone must have tampered with the encryption keys.

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  14. 89
    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The artisan engraved a cartouche around the royal name.

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  15. 90
    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A solution has been suggested by the team to resolve the issue.

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  16. 91
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She *told to me* the news.

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  17. 92
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: Neither of the options *are suitable for this task.*

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  18. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage : Democracy is frequently extolled as the political system that best guarantees individual liberty. Enshrined in constitutional rights and protected by the rule of law, freedom of speech, association, religion, and conscience are regarded as hallmarks of democratic governance. However, what is less frequently acknowledged—but equally vital—is the reciprocal pillar of responsibility without which such freedoms can degenerate into chaos, polarization, or authoritarian backlashes. Freedom in a democracy is not absolute; it exists within a framework of mutual restraint and civic discipline. The right to express dissent, for instance, is foundational. Yet when freedom of expression is weaponized to disseminate hate speech, misinformation, or seditious propaganda, it ceases to serve the democratic cause. Responsibility thus entails a conscious engagement with the implications of one’s actions—not just their legality, but their ethical and civic consequences. The challenge lies in reconciling liberty with accountability in pluralistic societies. With diverse cultural, ideological, and economic constituencies, democracies are inherently sites of contention. In such contexts, responsibility demands more than legal compliance—it requires empathy, critical thinking, and a commitment to collective well-being. A citizen’s right to protest, for example, must be exercised with awareness of public order and respect for differing viewpoints. Similarly, the freedom to vote must be matched by an obligation to make informed choices, unswayed by populism, prejudice, or manipulation. The tension between freedom and responsibility is perhaps most visible during moments of crisis—be it a pandemic, a communal riot, or a constitutional standoff. In such times, the temptation to prioritize personal liberty at the cost of collective safety can prove fatal. Refusal to wear masks during a health emergency or the viral spread of unverified news during civil unrest exemplify how unbridled freedom can undermine democratic resilience. Moreover, democracy itself is not self-sustaining; it requires vigilant citizens who recognize that rights are not entitlements in perpetuity, but privileges preserved through active participation. When freedom is divorced from responsibility, democratic institutions become vulnerable to erosion—from within. Demagogues often rise not solely because of state failure, but due to civic apathy or irresponsible use of democratic freedoms by the populace itself. Therefore, in any functioning democracy, freedom and responsibility are not opposing forces but mutually reinforcing imperatives. The preservation of liberty necessitates a citizenry capable of ethical judgment, informed debate, and constructive dissent. In the absence of responsibility, freedom risks transforming from a catalyst of justice into a vehicle of division. Democracy survives not just through the laws it enacts, but through the civic virtues its citizens embody.
    93
    According to the passage, what happens when freedom is exercised without responsibility?

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  19. 94
    Why does the author mention protests and voting as examples?

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  20. 95
    What is implied about the relationship between citizens and democratic institutions?

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  21. 96
    How does the passage describe the impact of crises on freedom in democracies?

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  22. 97
    What tone best describes the author's stance on freedom in democracy?

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  23. 98
    Select the correct option for the Direct Speech conversion of the sentence below. He observed that, had market liquidity vanished entirely, the exchange would have suspended trading.

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  24. 99
    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said, “I am reading a book.”

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  25. 100
    Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage: 1. Solar energy is one of the most promising renewable energy sources. 2. It has a minimal environmental impact compared to fossil fuels. 3. Solar panels convert sunlight into electricity. 4. However, energy storage remains a significant challenge for solar energy systems.

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