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SSC CGL Tier I, 19 Sep 2025, Shift 2 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 60 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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General Intelligence and Reasoning

25 questions

  1. 1
    Consider the following statement and choose the option that follows. Statement: The bank has introduced green bonds to fund eco-friendly projects. Conclusions: I. The bank is supporting sustainable development. II. Green bonds are more profitable than regular bonds.

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  2. 2
    If 3 + 2 = 13, 4 + 3 = 25, then 5 + 4 = ?

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  3. 3
    Interchange two signs to correct. 50÷5+8−6×2=5650 \div 5 + 8 - 6 \times 2 = 56

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  4. 4
    A is the daughter of B. B is the son of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?

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  5. 5
    Pointing to a woman, Raj said, "She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father's only son." How is the woman related to Raj?

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  6. 6
    Solve: AC : DF :: GI : ?

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  7. 7
    Complete the pattern: 1, 4, 13, 40, 121, ?

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  8. 8
    Read the following statement carefully and identify the action that follows. Statement: Students often get distracted during online classes. Course of Action: 1. Introduce interactive tools and quizzes. 2. Ban online classes permanently.

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  9. 9
    Identify the odd one out:

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  10. 10
    Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions asked below. Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F, and G live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 7. A does not live on the topmost floor. B lives immediately below F. C lives on an even-numbered floor. Three people live between F and C. The number of people living between F and D is equal to the number of people living between D and C. More than four people live between E and G. B lives on one of the floors below G. Who among the following lives two floors below A?

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  11. 11
    Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: All actors are professionals. All professionals are creative. Some creative people are lazy. Conclusions: I. Some actors are lazy. II. All actors are creative.

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  12. 12
    Find the odd one out: Square, Triangle, Rectangle, Sphere, Pentagon

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  13. 13
    In each of the following questions, a specific letter-to-letter coding pattern is applied to the first word to obtain the second word. Apply the same pattern to the third word and choose the correct option from the given alternatives. xxyzyy : ccbabb :: xyyzzy : ?

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  14. 14
    If FRIEND becomes FDNIRE, how is TICKET written?

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  15. 15
    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:

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  16. 16
    Which of the following words is formed by changing exactly one letter at one place in the word "PROFESSION"?

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  17. 17
    Complete the series. 60, 30, 20, 15, 12, 10, ?

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  18. 18
    What comes next? DZA, FXC, HVE, ?

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  19. 19
    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives

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  20. 20
    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: AZ, BY, CX, ?

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  21. 21
    If + = -, - = +; then 20 + 8 - 5 = ?

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  22. 22
    A group of 20 students are sitting in a circle. Each shakes hands with exactly 3 neighbors. How many handshakes occur?

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  23. 23
    If MASTER is coded as NBTUFS, how is NBTUFS coded?

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  24. 24
    If the 7th day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, What day will it be on the 20th day of the month?

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  25. 25
    The series given below contains a sequence of numbers. Accordingly identify the incorrect combination.9 , 17 , 36 , 72 , 144 , 288

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General Awareness

25 questions

  1. 26
    Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the Gaganyaan mission?

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  2. 27
    Which QUAD country has the largest economy?

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  3. 28
    The "National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy" aims to foster creativity and innovation in India. Which of the following is a key objective of this policy?

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  4. 29
    The Salt Satyagraha of 1930 was a direct civil disobedience movement against which British policy?

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  5. 30
    Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is required for digital evidence to be presented in court?

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  6. 31
    Who became the Chairperson of the National Statistical Commission (NSC) in 2022?

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  7. 32
    Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT regarding iron ore in India?

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  8. 33
    What is the primary instrument used in the performance of Burrakatha in Andhra Pradesh?

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  9. 34
    Which of the Indian States/Union Territories had lowest sex ratio in 2011?

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  10. 35
    Which of the given pairs is NOT matched correctly?

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  11. 36
    What is the typical base design of the simplest Nagara-style shikhara?

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  12. 37
    The Kharchi festival is primarily associated with:

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  13. 38
    What title did many Kushana rulers adopt to signify their divine status?

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  14. 39
    Which of the following statements about Judo techniques and rules is correct?

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  15. 40
    Which region did Babur first conquer during his initial campaigns in India?

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  16. 41
    How did Sushil Kumar secure India's first Olympic wrestling medal in 56 years?

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  17. 42
    Who won the International Booker Prize in 2025?

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  18. 43
    The '73rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship' held in 2024–25 showcased top talent from the armed forces' aquatic teams. Which of the following statements are true? 1. The Eastern Naval Command organises this championship. 2. Visakhapatnam served as the host city for the year 2024-25. 3. The tournament took place in April 2025, in line with the annual aquatic events calendar of the Services.

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  19. 44
    What is the role of Article 263 in maintaining Union–State coordination?

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  20. 45
    Which statements about thermodynamic processes and heat engines is/are correct? 1. Work done in irreversible expansion is greater than in quasi-static expansion. 2. Efficiency of an ideal heat engine depends only on reservoir temperatures. 3. Heat flows from cold to hot only with external work.

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  21. 46
    Fill in the Blank: In Jhora dance, participants hold each other by the ______.

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  22. 47
    In the 2025 Global Firepower (GFP) review, which of the following statements is correct regarding the ranking methodology?

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  23. 48
    Where is India's first Green Hydrogen Hub planned?

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  24. 49
    Which ISRO mission first discovered lunar hydration?

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  25. 50
    Consider the following statements: 1. Both President and Governor can grant pardons under Article 72. 2. The Governor cannot pardon in cases of death sentence. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions

  1. 51
    If a+b=5\sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b} = 5 and a−b=1\sqrt{a} - \sqrt{b} = 1, what is the value of a and b?

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  2. 52
    Which of the following is the least 6-digit number, which is a perfect square?

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  3. 53
    If 12.5%12.5\% of p is equal to 50%50\% of q, what is the ratio p : q?

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  4. 54
    A grocer mixes two varieties of rice – one costing ₹40 per kg and the other costing ₹60 per kg, in the ratio 2:32 : 3. If he sells the mixed variety at ₹57.20 per kg, find his gain or loss percent.

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  5. 55
    A book, originally priced at ₹600, is subject to a reduction in cost through two consecutive discounts: an initial markdown of 10%10\%, followed by an additional 20%20\% discount. The question then is to determine the conclusive selling price of the book once both these successive price adjustments have been applied.

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  6. 56
    Having initially established the marked price of a particular commodity at a 20%20\% premium over its cost price, a retail vendor subsequently extended an unspecified discount. If, following this concession, the transaction ultimately yielded a profit of 8%8\% on the cost price, what was the exact percentage of the discount given?

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  7. 57
    If a3+b3=35a^3 + b^3=35 and ab=6ab = 6, find the value of a+ba + b.

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  8. 58
    At what rate of simple interest will ₹2,000 become ₹2,520 in 4 years?

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  9. 59
    A person invested ₹8,000 in one scheme at 6%6\% simple interest and ₹5,000 in another scheme at 8%8\% simple interest for the same duration. If he received a total interest of ₹1,760 from both investments, what was the duration (time period) of the investments?

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  10. 60
    A wheelchair ramp needs to reach a platform that is 1.5 meters high. If the ramp is designed to make an angle of 30∘30^\circ with the level ground, what is the length of the ramp?

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  11. 61
    From a point A on the ground, the angle of elevation to the top of a building is 30∘30^\circ. From a point B, which is directly between A and the foot of the building, the angle of elevation is 60∘60^\circ. What is the ratio of the distance of point A from the building's foot to the distance of point B from the building's foot?

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  12. 62
    If the curved surface area of a hemisphere is 154 cm2\text{cm}^2 find its diameter.

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  13. 63
    A cone has height h and radius r. The cone is melted and recast into a smaller cone whose height is h2\frac{h}{2} and radius isr3\frac{r}{3} What fraction of the original volume is unused?

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  14. 64
    What is the ratio of the area of a regular hexagon to that of an equilateral triangle of the same side length?

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  15. 65
    A prism has an equilateral triangular base with a side length of 4 cm. Its height starts at 5 cm and increases by 1 cm for each subsequent layer, forming 5 layers in total. What is the total volume of the prism? (Use 3≈1.732\sqrt{3} \approx 1.732)

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  16. 66
    What is the quation of line through (-1,-2) with slope -3.

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  17. 67
    If every exterior angle of a regular polygon is 60∘60^\circ, how many sides does the polygon have?

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  18. 68
    In a triangle PQR, the centroid is at G(1, 2). If the vertices P and Q are at (3, -1) and (-2, 4) respectively, what are the coordinates of vertex R?

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  19. 69
    Evaluate: (11+7)2−(11−7)2(\sqrt{11} + \sqrt{7})^2 - (\sqrt{11} - \sqrt{7})^2

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  20. 70
    Two circles, with radii of r1r_1 and r2r_2 respectively, have their centers separated by a distance of dd. If the length of a direct common tangent is equal to the distance between the centers, which of the following is true?

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  21. 71
    A chord of a circle has a length of 2212\sqrt{21} cm. The distance of the chord from the center is 5 cm. What is the radius of the circle?

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  22. 72
    If sin⁡A+cos⁡A=x\sin A + \cos A = x, then find the value of sin⁡2A+cos⁡2A+2sin⁡Acos⁡A\sin^2 A + \cos^2 A + 2\sin A\cos A.

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  23. 73
    If sin⁡x=cos⁡x\sin x = \cos x, find sin⁡4x+cos⁡4x\sin^4 x + \cos^4 x.

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  24. 74
    If a+b+c=0a + b + c = 0 and a=0.1a = 0.1, b=0.2b = 0.2, c=−0.3c = -0.3, then what is (a3+b3+c3)÷(3abc)(a^3 + b^3 + c^3) \div (3abc)?

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  25. 75
    If p=0.8p = 0.8 and q=0.02q = 0.02, find the value of (4p)3+(4q)3p3+q3\frac{(4p)^3 + (4q)^3}{p^3 + q^3}.

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English Comprehension

25 questions

  1. 76
    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: CIRCUMSPECT

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  2. 77
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Obdurate

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  3. 78
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Hand and glove

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  4. 79
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Currying favour

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  5. 80
    Choose the correct spelling for a word meaning 'concise and forcefully expressive'.

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  6. 81
    Choose the correct one-word substitution for: ‘A place where wild animals are kept’.

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  7. 82
    Choose the correct one-word substitution for: ‘A building where dead bodies are kept temporarily’.

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  8. 83
    Choose the correct form: The committee, along with its chairperson, _____ scheduled to meet on Monday.

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  9. 84
    Fill in the blank with the correct tense: They _____ their objections by the time the committee convened.

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  10. 85
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Neither of the proposed strategies (1)/ seem to address the core issue (2)/ that the committee identified (3)/ during last month’s review. (4)/

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  11. 86
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The team’s objective, despite its vagueness, (1)/ were understood by the evaluators (2)/ to focus more on inclusivity (3)/ than on quantifiable metrics. (4)

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  12. 87
    Change the following from active to passive: The authorities are to close the road.

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  13. 88
    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The medieval monk copied the codex meticulously.

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  14. 89
    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The allegation that the system had been hacked was denied by the company.

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  15. 90
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: He is *more tall than* his brother.

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  16. 91
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: He did not succeed *despite of his hard work*.

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  17. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage : Creativity, often misconstrued as a sporadic burst of inspiration, is in fact a cultivated disposition—a dynamic confluence of cognitive agility, emotional openness, and environmental stimuli. While society celebrates the mythos of the “lone genius,” true creativity thrives within a matrix of intentional practice, structural latitude, and psychological resilience. The fostering of creativity, therefore, necessitates a paradigmatic shift from product-centric appraisals to process-oriented cultivation. At its epistemic root, creativity involves the capacity to transcend conventional schemas and synthesize seemingly disparate elements into novel configurations. This process is neither arbitrary nor purely intuitive; it rests upon a foundation of deep domain knowledge, iterative exploration, and recursive reflection. Innovation emerges not in spite of constraints but often because of them—forcing the mind to navigate beyond linearity into realms of associative reasoning and metaphorical abstraction. Pedagogically, fostering creativity demands a disruption of didactic orthodoxy. Traditional models that valorize rote memorization and standardized testing engender cognitive rigidity, discouraging risk-taking and divergent thinking. Instead, educational paradigms must prioritize open-ended inquiry, collaborative problem-solving, and transdisciplinary exposure. The cultivation of creative potential is as much about unlearning ossified habits as it is about acquiring new competencies. Equally vital is the emotional ecology in which creativity is incubated. Psychological safety—a space where failure is reframed as experimentation rather than inadequacy—empowers individuals to take imaginative leaps. Fear, perfectionism, and external validation often corrode the creative impulse, replacing curiosity with compliance. Thus, fostering creativity is inseparable from nurturing emotional intelligence and self-efficacy. Cultural narratives, too, shape the horizons of creative possibility. Societies that stigmatize deviation from normative behavior tend to pathologize originality. Conversely, environments that valorize heterodoxy and intellectual risk often become fertile grounds for creative flourishing. This implies that fostering creativity is a sociocultural endeavor as much as an individual one—it requires dismantling hierarchies of value that privilege conformity over experimentation. Technological mediation further complicates the landscape. While digital tools democratize access to creative resources, they can also overwhelm cognitive bandwidth with passive consumption. The algorithmic curation of attention favors predictability and virality over nuance and depth. Therefore, intentional disengagement—spaces of solitude, boredom, and analog play—must be reclaimed as essential components of creative incubation. Ultimately, fostering creativity is not a linear prescription but a multilayered praxis. It entails cognitive elasticity, emotional resilience, epistemic humility, and cultural permission. It is a commitment to living in questions rather than chasing answers, to constructing meaning rather than consuming it.
    92
    According to the passage, how do constraints impact creativity?

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  18. 93
    What does the passage suggest about standardized education’s effect on creativity?

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  19. 94
    The phrase “emotional ecology” in the context of creativity most likely refers to:

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  20. 95
    Which of the following is NOT suggested by the passage as a factor in fostering creativity?

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  21. 96
    What is the closest synonym for “ossified” as used in the line “...about unlearning ossified habits...”?

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  22. 97
    Select the correct option for the Direct Speech conversion of the sentence below. He commented that the policy’s efficacy would remain conjectural until longitudinal data accrued.

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  23. 98
    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said, “I enjoy painting.”

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  24. 99
    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Overfishing poses a significant threat to global marine ecosystems, leading to the collapse of fish stocks and disrupting the food web. 2. This measure helps to restore fish populations, enhance biodiversity, and ultimately support sustainable fishing practices in adjacent waters. 3. The depletion of key species, such as sharks and tuna, can trigger a cascading effect, with far-reaching consequences for the entire ecosystem. 4. To combat this issue, many governments and conservation organizations have established marine protected areas (MPAs) where fishing is either restricted or prohibited.

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  25. 100
    Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. 1. This involves careful budgeting and debt management. 2. Financial literacy is essential for individual well-being. 3. It empowers people to make informed decisions about money. 4. Education plays a vital role in improving financial literacy rates.

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