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SSC CGL Tier I, 20 Sep 2025, Shift 1 question paper

100 questions · 200 marks · 60 minutes · +2 per correct answer, -0.5 per wrong one

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General Intelligence and Reasoning

25 questions

  1. 1
    Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. Sample Address:Shop No. 11, Ground Floor,Plaza Mall, Sector 18, Noida,Uttar Pradesh - 201301

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  2. 2
    Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation CORRECT? [{(15+3)−(4×2)}÷(4−6)]×5=10[\{(15 + 3) - (4 \times 2)\} \div (4 - 6)] \times 5 = 10

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  3. 3
    If '÷\div' means '+, '×\times' means '-', '+' means ' ÷\div ' and '-' means '×\times', which of the following options is CORRECT?

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  4. 4
    Pointing to a man, Ravi said, "He is the son of my father's only son." How is the man related to Ravi?

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  5. 5
    Q is the daughter of R, who is the mother of S. T is the father of Q. How is T related to S?

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  6. 6
    Instruction: Identify the judgements that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: In an attempt to modernize agricultural output, the government has introduced AI-based crop surveillance tools in rural zones with high farmer suicide rates. Judgements: 1.Traditional methods of crop monitoring are entirely ineffective. 2.Technological interventions may indirectly improve farmer well-being.

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  7. 7
    Find the odd one out:

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  8. 8
    Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: All poets are writers.Some writers are critics. No critic is a fool. Conclusions: I. Some poets are critics. II. Some writers are not fools.

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  9. 9
    Find the odd one out: Asia, Europe, Africa, Brazil, Australia

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  10. 10
    The following word uses an extra letter not found in the main word is: RELATIONSHIP

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  11. 11
    Which meaningful word can be formed from the letters "MOTLETEE"?

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  12. 12
    If DESIGN is written as FGVKIQ, how is VISION written?

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  13. 13
    What comes next? CBA, DCB, EDC, FED, ?

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  14. 14
    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives

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  15. 15
    Complete the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

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  16. 16
    A person walks 5 km to a destination in 1 hour. On the return journey, they walk the same 5 km distance back to the starting point in 30 minutes. What is the average speed of the person for the entire journey?

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  17. 17
    If 5 @ 2 = 17 and 6 @ 3 = 27, what is 7 @ 4?

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  18. 18
    If 9 @ 1 = 82 and 6 @ 2 = 38, what is the value of 7 @ 3?

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  19. 19
    You're an administrative officer. You see bias in staff recruitment. What should you do?

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  20. 20
    You are given a mathematical expression with basic operations. However, the symbols used are not their usual meaning. You must follow these symbol substitution rules: '+' means '-' '-' means '+' '×\times' means '÷\div' '÷\div' means '×\times' 120÷6×5+10−4=?120 \div 6 \times 5 + 10 - 4 = ?

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  21. 21
    A doctor mistakenly discloses patient data. What legal principle is violated?

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  22. 22
    What should come at the place of question mark? : 8, 27, 64, 125, ?, 343

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  23. 23
    Statements: All dancers are artists. No artist is lazy. Conclusions: I. No dancer is lazy. II. Some lazy are dancers.

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  24. 24
    If 'COW' is coded as '3-15-23', how will 'WOC' be coded?

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  25. 25
    If SCHOOL is coded as TIDPPM, how is TIDPPM coded?

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General Awareness

25 questions

  1. 26
    Who was appointed as the Secretary of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in April 2025?

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  2. 27
    What is the main tower of a Drāviḍa-style temple known as?

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  3. 28
    Which of the following best captures the key rituals and symbolism of the Nocte tribe's Loku festival?

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  4. 29
    Which Mahājanapada rose to political and military prominence between the 6th and 4th centuries BCE?

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  5. 30
    Which of the following statements about basketball equipment specifications is accurate?

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  6. 31
    Who won India’s most recent Olympic medal in freestyle wrestling at the Paris 2024 Olympics?

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  7. 32
    Which of the following statements is correct regarding Vijayanagara traditions?

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  8. 33
    The Age of Consent Act 1891 raised the minimum marital age for girls from:

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  9. 34
    Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): India and Nepal continue to experience unresolved border tensions in regions like Kalapani and Susta, despite finalizing over 90% of their boundary strip maps. Reason (R): The border dispute in Susta arises due to encroachments by Nepalese villagers across the international border marked by the Treaty of Sugauli of 1816.

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  10. 35
    What is the primary focus of Peter Frankopan’s book The Silk Roads: A New History of the World?

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  11. 36
    Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The Northern Plains are one of the most agriculturally productive regions in India. Reason (R): These plains are composed of rich alluvial soil, have a favourable climate, and receive adequate water supply from major rivers.

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  12. 37
    Fill in the Blanks: India’s Space Vision 2047 aims to have the Bharatiya Antariksha Station in orbit by the year ______ and land Indians on the Moon using indigenous technologies by the year ______.

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  13. 38
    Identify the athlete NOT correctly paired with their sport as per National Games 2025:

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  14. 39
    Fill in the blanks: The Sarkaria Commission (Centre–State Relations) was set up in the year _____.

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  15. 40
    A 60 W electric lamp is used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed in 'units' (kilowatt-hours) in 30 days.

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  16. 41
    The Uniform Civil Code primarily seeks to replace which types of laws currently governing personal matters in India?

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  17. 42
    The primary aim of the Soil Health Card Scheme is:

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  18. 43
    What was the key contribution of Baikuntha Shukla in the Indian freedom struggle?

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  19. 44
    Consider the statements about Dangi: 1. Performed by Dangi Adivasis of Dang district, Gujarat. 2. The dance is a solo narrative mimicking farm tools. Which is/are correct?

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  20. 45
    Which of the following best defines the concept of 'opportunity cost'?

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  21. 46
    According to the Global Firepower (GFP) methodology, what is the purpose of using special modifiers like bonuses and penalties in its ranking formula?

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  22. 47
    Who among the following was the key leader of the Khongjom War (1891) against British annexation of Manipur?

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  23. 48
    What was the main rationale for the policy of import substitution during the first seven Five Year Plans?

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  24. 49
    The "Green Credit Programme" launched under the Environment Ministry rewards individuals and companies for which activity?

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  25. 50
    Consider the following statements: 1. Criminal law is exclusively under the Union List. 2. Agriculture is a State subject. 3. Trade and commerce within a State falls under the State List. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions

  1. 51
    Find the value of x in given equation: 3+x+3−x3+x−3−x=2\frac{\sqrt{3+x}+\sqrt{3-x}}{\sqrt{3+x}-\sqrt{3-x}} = 2

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  2. 52
    A furniture establishment initially disposes of a particular dining table for ₹Z, thereby realising a 25%25\% profit margin. Subsequently, as a promotional strategy for a festive period, the marked price of this identical table is elevated to ₹1.6Z. Following this adjustment, a special concession of 20%20\% is applied to the newly established marked price. The inquiry then seeks to ascertain the resulting percentage profit generated by the store during this specific celebratory sales period. What is the percentage profit earned by the store during the festive sale?

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  3. 53
    What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 12,500 at 15%15\% p.a. in 2 years, if the interest is compounded 8-monthly?

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  4. 54
    A contractor employs 15 men to complete a work in 24 days, working 8 hours per day. After six days, he adds five more men but also reduces the working hours to six per day from the seventh day onwards. If all men work with the same efficiency throughout, how many more days will be required to finish the remaining work?

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  5. 55
    A thief and a police officer are 500 meters apart. If they run in the same direction, the police officer catches the thief in 10 minutes. If they run towards each other, they meet in 2 minutes. What is the speed of the thief in meters per minute?

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  6. 56
    What type of number is the result of multiplying a Rational Number with an Irrational Number?

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  7. 57
    Three metallic spheres with radii 3 cm,4 cm, and 5 cm respectively are melted together and recast into a single solid sphere. What is the radius of the new sphere?

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  8. 58
    A car runs 18.4 km using 2122\frac{1}{2} liters of petrol. What is the mileage in km per liter (rounded to 2 decimals)?

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  9. 59
    In a three-way joint venture, the first investor contributes capital, the second contributes time and strategy, and the third brings a network of suppliers. They agree to share profits in the ratio 3:2:23:2:2. If the venture earns Rs. 1,40,000 in the first year, how much should the strategist (second partner) receive?

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  10. 60
    A ribbon is cut into three pieces in the ratio 2:3:52:3:5. If the length of the longest piece is 20 cm, what is the total length of the ribbon?

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  11. 61
    In an urban project, triangular plots with side ratios 3:4:53:4:5 are allocated. If the perimeter is 60 m, find the area.

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  12. 62
    A student's marks in Mathematics were 20%20\% more than in Physics. If he scored 72 in Physics, how many marks did he score in Mathematics?

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  13. 63
    6 women and 4 men can complete a work in 10 days, while 4 women and 5 men complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 8 women complete it?

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  14. 64
    The average of a group of 8 consecutive even numbers is 41. What is the sum of the smallest and largest numbers in the group?

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  15. 65
    A prism with a square base of side length 5 cm is constructed in layers. Its height follows an arithmetic progression, increasing from 4 cm in the first layer to 16 cm in the fourth layer. What is the total volume of the prism?

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  16. 66
    A bucket has 60 litres of a solution with sugar and water in the ratio 5:15:1. If 12 litres of the solution are replaced with water, what is the new ratio?

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  17. 67
    If cot⁡A=724\cot A = \frac{7}{24}, then what is cosec⁡A\operatorname{cosec} A?

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  18. 68
    Find the solution to the system: y=3x−4y = 3x - 4 and y=−x+2y = -x + 2.

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  19. 69
    When a transversal intersects two parallel lines, one of the alternate interior angles is 115∘115^\circ. What is the measure of the angle that lies opposite to it on the alternate interior side?

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  20. 70
    If △ABC∼△XYZ\triangle ABC \sim \triangle XYZ and AB=4 cm, BC=6 cm, XY=8 cm, what is the length of YZ?

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  21. 71
    If x=2+3x = 2 + \sqrt{3}, find x−1xx - \frac{1}{x}.

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  22. 72
    A circle that has a radius of 5 centimeters, and there is a chord measuring 8 centimeters in length. What is the distance from the center of the circle to the chord?

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  23. 73
    A circle of radius of 12 cm. Two radii are drawn such that the length of the chord connecting their endpoints is 12 cm. What is the area of the minor segment formed?

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  24. 74
    If sin⁡x=0.6\sin x = 0.6 and x∈(0,π2)x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right), find sin⁡2x+cos⁡2x\sin 2x + \cos 2x.

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  25. 75
    Multiply 12.345 by 0.067 and round your answer to 4 decimal places.

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English Comprehension

25 questions

  1. 76
    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: OBFUSCATION

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  2. 77
    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Vociferous

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  3. 78
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Flash in the pan

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  4. 79
    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: To bite one’s thumb at someone

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  5. 80
    Which spelling is correct for a word meaning 'calm and peaceful'?

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  6. 81
    Choose the correct spelling for a word meaning 'basic or fundamental'.

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  7. 82
    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Cancellation of a penalty or debt.'

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  8. 83
    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'The use of trickery to achieve a political or financial goal'.

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  9. In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: Postcolonial infrastructures often inhabit a schizochronic condition—a simultaneity of obsolescence and futurity. Flyovers half-finished, railway stations calcified mid-renovation, and electric grids oscillating between blackout and surplus do not signify simple malfunction. Rather, they manifest a (1) _____ temporality in which the present is neither a continuity of the past nor a stable projection of the future. These infrastructures function not as inert utilities but as affective indexes of temporal rupture. Modernity, once telegraphed through asphalt and concrete, now flickers within these arrested developments—gestures of progress suspended in bureaucratic amber. Here, functionality is beside the point. What matters is the performative (2) _____ of development: roads that signify mobility even when impassable, metros that symbolize futurity even when immobile. In this schema, infrastructure ceases to be an engineering problem and becomes a narrative technology—a spatial discourse that (3) _____ the nation-state’s promises into sedimented form. Bridges-to-be and always-rebuilding airports constitute not failure, but continuity: the continual renewal of unfinished intention. Such spatial artifacts require a recalibrated hermeneutics. To read them literally is to miss their symbolic resonance. Their disrepair is not decay but (4) _____: a visual vocabulary of state temporality, in which incompletion is the political idiom of continuity. This is the temporal grammar of anticipation without arrival. Thus, the postcolonial built environment articulates not stasis, but (5) _____—a condition where motion exists without direction, and progress is simulated through perpetual incompletion.
    84
    What should come in the place of blank number (1)?

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  10. 85
    What should come in the place of blank number (2)?

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  11. 86
    What should come in the place of blank number (3)?

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  12. 87
    What should come in the place of blank number (4)?

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  13. 88
    What should come in the place of blank number (5)?

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  14. 89
    Choose the correct phrasal verb: The professor asked the student to _____ on her thesis argument.

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  15. 90
    Select the correct option: Far from being a liability, his dissenting views often served as a ___ to complacency within the group.

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  16. 91
    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The report was more preferable (1)/ to the previous version (2)/ due to its structured layout (3)/ and clarity of language. (4)/

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  17. 92
    Change the following from active to passive: They had been making the staff report discrepancies silently.

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  18. 93
    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The altar cloth bore a crimson galloon border.

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  19. 94
    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The funds were believed to have been misallocated by certain board members over several quarters.

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  20. 95
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: My friend *lives in a village since* 2015.

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  21. 96
    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: They enjoyed *during the holidays.*

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  22. 97
    A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. She mentioned that she was working on a classified project.

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  23. 98
    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. Rita said, “Please close the window.”

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  24. 99
    Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage: 1. Protein folding determines its biological function.2. Misfolding can lead to diseases like Alzheimer’s.3. Molecular chaperones assist in correct folding.4. AI tools like AlphaFold predict structures accurately.

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  25. 100
    Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. 1. Therefore, critical evaluation of sources is paramount. 2. The proliferation of information online is immense. 3. Not all information is accurate or unbiased. 4. Media literacy skills are essential for navigating this landscape.

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