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CBSE Class 12 Biology 2023 question paper (57/3)

Maximum marks 70 · Time 3 hours · 3 sets

Try each question first, then open its model answer. Where the paper offers a choice, both questions are shown with OR between them.

Section A

1 mark each

  1. Q.11 mark
    Choose the set of sex determining chromosomes that indicates the correct sex of the respective organism.

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  2. Q.21 mark
    Given below is a list of steps Meselson and Stahl carried out in their experiment to prove that DNA replication is semi-conservative. Select the option that gives the correct sequence of steps followed by them. (i) Bacteria transferred to a N14\text{N}^{14} medium and sampled every 20 minutes. (ii) All bacteria contain hybrid DNA (N14\text{N}^{14} DNA and N15\text{N}^{15} DNA). (iii) Bacteria grown in N15\text{N}^{15} medium for many generations. (iv) All bacteria contain N15\text{N}^{15} DNA. (v) Bacteria contain either all N14\text{N}^{14} DNA or all hybrid DNA.

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  3. Q.31 mark
    Identify the option that gives the correct type of evolution exhibited by the two animals shown, living in the same habitat in Australia.

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  4. Q.41 mark
    A human male decides to adopt a surgical method for contraception. Identify the point in the diagram where a cut would be made and tied.

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  5. Q.51 mark
    Which of the following options correctly matches the name of the hormone to its site of production in the human body ?
    Name of the HormoneSite of Production
    P. Oxytocini. Placenta
    Q. Relaxinii. Corpus Luteum
    R. hCGiii. Pituitary Gland
    S. Progesteroneiv. Ovaries

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  6. Q.61 mark
    Which of the following seeds have remained alive for the longest period ?

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  7. Q.71 mark
    Select the options which is/are incorrect statement(s) with respect to T-lymphocytes in the human body. (i) They are a type of white blood cells. (ii) They are produced in bone marrow. (iii) They remain active at all times in the body. (iv) They mature in the bone marrow.

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  8. Q.81 mark
    Human settlement often leads to habitat loss which leads to fragmentation, forming smaller patches of habitats. Select the statements that describe how a small patch differs from a large patch of the same habitat. (i) Invasive species will never be seen here. (ii) Population of large animals decreases. (iii) Biodiversity decreases. (iv) Competition from surrounding habitats increases.

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  9. Q.91 mark
    Identify the option that does not exhibit a parasitic relationship.

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  10. Q.101 mark
    Identify the fungus that ripens the famous 'Roquefort' cheese :

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  11. Q.111 mark
    The given schematic illustration shows three steps 'P', 'Q' and 'R' of the polymerase chain reaction. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the illustration given above ? (i) Step 'P' is showing denaturation at low temperature. (ii) Step 'Q' is a denaturation of DNA strand at high temperature, followed by annealing. (iii) Step 'R' is an extension of DNA in presence of thermostable DNA polymerase. (iv) Step 'Q' is extension with two sets of primers.

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  12. Q.121 mark
    DNA profiles of the child and three individuals 1, 2 and 3 who claim to be the parents of the child are given below. Select the option that shows the correct actual parent/parents of the child.

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  13. For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
    Q.131 mark
    Assertion (A) : In humans the genotype with all the dominant alleles (AABBCC) will have the darkest skin colour. Reason (R) : In a polygenic trait, phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele.

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  14. Q.141 mark
    Assertion (A) : The number of white winged moths decreased drastically after industrialisation in England. Reason (R) : Effects of industrialisation were more marked in rural areas of England.

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  15. Q.151 mark
    Assertion (A) : More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and asthma due to sensitivity to the environment. Reason (R) : Modern day lifestyle and a protected environment in early life has resulted in lowering the immunity.

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  16. Q.161 mark
    Assertion (A) : The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses sexual deceit to get pollinated by a species of bee. Reason (R) : The female bee changes its colour depending on the temperature of the area.

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Section B

2 marks each

  1. Q.172 marks
    (a) Explain the process of the development of a male gametophyte in an angiosperm. (b) Why is it called a male gametophyte ?
  2. Q.182 marks
    (a) Write the first step the primary effluent undergoes when it enters the secondary treatment plant and state the purpose. (b) What is the level of B.O.D indicative of in the secondary treatment plant ? Mention its significance.
  3. Q.192 marks
    Given below is a food web that involves nine organisms. (a) Identify two producers and two carnivores shown in the food web. (b) Is it possible to make an ecological pyramid depicting this food web ? Give reason in support of your answer.
  4. Q.202 marks
    Illustrate with the help of an example how introduction of an alien species turns invasive and causes decline of an indigenous species.
  5. Q.21 (a)2 marks
    'Insertional inactivation' is a method to detect recombinant DNA. Explain the method.
  6. OR

    Q.21 (b)2 marks
    Explain how recombinant DNA technology is used to detect a disease even before any clinical symptom appears.

Section C

3 marks each

  1. Q.22 (a)3 marks
    (i) How many types of RNA polymerases are there in a eukaryote cell ? Mention which one of them transcribes hnRNA. (ii) Write the changes that hnRNA undergoes before it leaves the nucleus as mRNA.
  2. OR

    Q.22 (b)3 marks
    The length of DNA in any cell is far greater than the dimension of its nucleus. Explain how this enormous DNA is packaged in a eukaryotic cell.
  3. Q.233 marks
    Expand and explain the following techniques used in the 'Test Tube Baby' programme : (a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) IUI
  4. Q.243 marks
    Given below is a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule. State the developmental process of : (a) (i) 'b' from 'a'. (ii) 'e' from 'd'. (iii) 'd' from 'b'. (b) Identify 'a', 'b' and 'c'.
  5. Q.253 marks
    (a) Darwin's theory of Natural Selection is widely accepted but some limitations have been identified by modern biologists. Mention the limitations identified. (b) Name and state the most accepted theory of evolution in modern times. (c) Mention any two ways the limitations identified in Darwin's theory of evolution are explained in modern biology.
  6. Q.263 marks
    (a) Name the category of drugs represented by the chemical structure given above. (b) If the methyl group is substituted by acetyl group we get a bitter crystalline compound. Name the compound. (c) Name the natural source of these compounds. (d) State the harmful effects of this class of drugs on the human body.
  7. Q.273 marks
    (a) Write the scientific name of the nematode that infests the tobacco plants and the part that it infests. (b) How is Agrobacterium used to protect tobacco plant from this attack ?
  8. Q.283 marks
    Explain the following population interactions with the help of one example each : (a) Brood Parasitism (b) Co-evolution of mutualists

Section D

1 mark each

  1. The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder up to three generations of a family. Observe the chart and answer the questions that follow.
    Q.29 (i)1 mark
    Is the disease sex-linked or autosomal as per the chart ? Give reasons in support of your answer.
  2. Q.29 (ii)1 mark
    Is it a recessive or a dominant disorder ?
  3. Q.29 (iii)1 mark
    Write the genotypes of the individuals 'C', 'D' and 'H'.
  4. Q.29 (iv) (a)1 mark
    If the female 'D' marries a normal man, what will be the probability of their daughter being a sufferer of this disease ?
  5. OR

    Q.29 (iv) (b)1 mark
    If the mother 'B' is a carrier of the disease, what will be the probability of their daughter being a sufferer of this disease ?
  6. The diagram shows the life cycle of a pathogenic protozoan.
    Q.30 (i)1 mark
    Name the parasitic stage that is being transferred from host 'X' to host 'Y'.
  7. Q.30 (ii)1 mark
    Write the changes the parasite undergoes in the liver.
  8. Q.30 (iii)1 mark
    Write the changes the parasite undergoes when it enters the RBC.
  9. Q.30 (iv) (a)1 mark
    Trace the changes the parasite undergoes when the host 'X' takes its blood meal from infected host 'Y'.
  10. OR

    Q.30 (iv) (b)1 mark
    At which stage during the life cycle of the pathogen does the host 'Y' experience the symptoms of the disease ? Name the disease and the toxic substance responsible for these symptoms.

Section E

5 marks each

  1. Q.31 (a)5 marks
    Answer the following questions with respect to recombinant DNA technology : (i) Why is plasmid considered to be an important tool in rDNA technology ? From where can plasmids be isolated ? (Any two sources) (ii) Explain the role of 'ori' and selectable marker in a cloning vector. (iii) "r-DNA technology cannot proceed without restriction endonuclease." Justify.
  2. OR

    Q.31 (b)5 marks
    Answer the following questions based on Bt-crops : (i) Why do farmers prefer to grow Bt cotton crop than genetically unmodified cotton crops ? (ii) Name any two insects that are killed by Bt toxin. (iii) Explain the mechanism by which Bt toxin kills the insects but not the bacterium which possesses the toxin.
  3. Q.32 (a)5 marks
    Protein synthesis requires the services of all three types of RNAs, namely t-RNA, m-RNA and r-RNA. Explain the role of each of them during the process of protein synthesis in prokaryotes.
  4. OR

    Q.32 (b)5 marks
    A homozygous tall pea plant with green seeds is crossed with a homozygous dwarf pea plant with yellow seeds. (i) Write the possible phenotype and genotype of F1\text{F}_1 generation. (ii) State the laws of Mendel that are proved true by the F1\text{F}_1 generation. (iii) Mention the F2\text{F}_2 phenotypic ratio along with their possible phenotypes. (iv) Write the genotypes of the male and female gametes produced by F1\text{F}_1 progeny.
  5. Q.33 (a)5 marks
    Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a human ovum. (i) Identify the parts 'a', 'b' and 'c'. (ii) This ovum is released from the ovary with incomplete meiotic division. When, where and how is the meiotic division completed ? (iii) How does an ovum ensure the entry of a single sperm during fertilisation ?
  6. OR

    Q.33 (b)5 marks
    (i) Double fertilisation is an event unique to all flowering plants. Explain the process. (ii) Give a reason for the following : (1) A seed of an orange has many embryos. (2) Cashew is a false fruit but Guava is a true fruit.