CBSE Class 12 Biology 2024 question paper (57/3)
Maximum marks 70 · Time 3 hours · 3 sets
Try each question first, then open its model answer. Where the paper offers a choice, both questions are shown with OR between them.
Section A
1 mark each
- Q.11 markThe part of the ovule that develops into protective coats of a seed after fertilization in a typical flowering plant is :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.21 markA DNA fragment has 2000 nucleotides, out of which 140 are Adenine. How many bases does this DNA segment possess that have triple hydrogen bonds between them ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.31 markDuring the 1850s in the pre-industrialisation era in England, the expected effect of natural selection on the number of dark-winged moths as compared to white-winged moths was :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.41 markIn which one of the following floral plants are many embryos formed in the seeds without fertilisation of the egg cell ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.51 markA Snapdragon plant bearing pink colour flowers is crossed with a Snapdragon plant bearing white colour flowers. The expected phenotypic percentage of the offspring is :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.61 markIn which of the given chromosomal disorders does the individual have tall stature with feminised character ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.71 markS.L. Miller in 1953, to support the theory of chemical evolution, created conditions in the closed flask that included :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.81 markIn an experiment, E. coli is grown in a medium containing . ( is the light isotope of Nitrogen) followed by growing it for six generations in a medium having heavy isotope of nitrogen (). After six generations, their DNA was extracted and subjected to CsCl density gradient centrifugation. Identify the correct density (Light/Hybrid/Heavy) and ratio of the bands of DNA in CsCl density gradient centrifugation.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.91 markWhich disease is the patient suffering from who is showing symptoms such as sustained high fever ( to ), stomach pain, constipation, headache, loss of appetite and weakness ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.101 markWhich native plasmid did Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer use for the construction of the first recombinant DNA ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.111 markWhich one of the following represents the correct annealing of primers to the DNA to be amplified in the PCR ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.121 markThe population growth curve applicable for a population growing in a geometric fashion, when the resources are not limiting in the habitat will be :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.Q.131 markAssertion (A) : Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are subjected to splicing to remove the introns. Reason (R) : Primary transcripts contain both exons and introns and the introns are non-functional in eukaryotes.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.141 markAssertion (A) : The chronic use of alcohol by a person leads to cirrhosis. Reason (R) : Alcohol addiction at times becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to the entire family of the addicted person.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.151 markAssertion (A) : The zygote gives rise to heart-shaped embryo and subsequently proembryo in most angiosperms. Reason (R) : The zygote is present at the micropylar end of the embryo sac and develops into an embryo.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.161 markAssertion (A) : The stirrer facilitates the even mixing of oxygen availability in a bioreactor. Reason (R) : Stirred-tank bioreactors generally have a flat base.
Tap an option to check your answer.
Section B
2 marks each
- Q.172 marksOral contraceptives are widely accepted for controlling the increasing rate of population. Name the two important components of oral contraceptives. Why is 'Saheli' considered a preferred contraceptive by women ?
- Q.182 marksWhat is a vaccine ? Write the basis on which it acts when administered in the body.
- Q.192 marksConsider the given data of a hypothetical small portion of mRNA that codes for a functional polypeptide chain and answer the questions that follow : mRNA 5' – UCAUUACCACGAUUCUUUAAAAGA – 3' (a) How many amino acids will be formed from the given codons, if substitution of 'U' by 'C' takes place at the codon ? Explain your answer. (b) Write the number of amino acids that would be in the polypeptide synthesised by a similar mRNA as above, where in the fourth codon instead of 'C' there is 'U'. Justify your answer.
- Q.202 marksWith reference to the set-ups (A, B and C) given below, of the electrophoretic separation of a mixture of DNA fragments of varied lengths, answer the questions that follow : (a) In which one of the two Set-ups, A or B, would you see the DNA fragments separated and why ? Justify your answer. (b) In Set-up C, which one of the two, I / II, are the bands of longer fragments of DNA ? Justify your answer.
- Q.21 (a)2 marksWrite important features of 'humus' formed during the decomposition cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem.
OR
Q.21 (b)2 marks(i) Graphically represent the relationship between species richness and area on a log-log scale for bats and fishes. (ii) Write the equation for the relationship as on a logarithmic scale.
Section C
3 marks each
- Q.223 marksDraw a longitudinal section of pistil of a flower showing growth of the pollen tube. Label the part : (a) through which the pollen tube moves down. (b) the cell wherein the pollen tube releases its contents.
- Q.233 marksExplain the IUI and IUT methods of assisted reproductive technologies.
- Q.243 marksThree crosses were carried out in pea plants with respect to flower colour violet/white (V/v) and flower position axial/terminal (A/a). Study in the table the crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c' where parental phenotypes and their progeny phenotypes are given.Find the genotypes of each of the parental pairs of crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c'.
Parental plants (Phenotypes) Progeny (Phenotypes) (a) Violet, axial white, axial 6/16 white, axial; 2/16 white, terminal; 6/16 violet, axial; 2/16 violet, axial (b) Violet, axial white, terminal 1/4 violet, axial; 1/4 violet, terminal; 1/4 white, axial; 1/4 white, terminal (c) Violet, axial violet, axial 3/4 violet, axial; 1/4 white, axial - Q.253 marksA population of snakes lived in a desert with brown sand. Study the drawings given below showing the change in the population from 'one' to 'two' over time and answer the question that follows. Brown snakes and Grey snakes are represented by alleles A/a (Dominant/recessive). (a) If the frequency of the recessive trait is 9% in population-one, work out the frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant snakes. (b) Name the mechanism of evolution that must have operated so that population-two evolved from population-one.
- Q.26 (a)3 marks(i) List two major reasons for using cow-dung in a biogas plant instead of using domestic sewage. (ii) Mention one use of the unspent slurry of the biogas plant.
OR
Q.26 (b)3 marksName the bioactive molecule and its microbial source generally used by physicians to treat the patients for : (i) Myocardial infarction (ii) High blood cholesterol level (iii) Organ transplantation- Q.273 marks(a) Give the scientific name of the bacteria widely used in biotechnology to create a GM cotton crop resistant to bollworm attacks. (b) Explain how GM cotton crop is able to resist insect attacks.
- Q.283 marksDescribe how fig tree and wasp relationship is a spectacular example of mutualism.
Section D
- Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. In recombinant DNA technology, restriction enzymes are used as they recognize and cut DNA within a specific recognition sequence. BamH I is one such restriction enzyme which binds at the recognition sequence 5' G-G-A-T-C-C 3' and cleaves this sequence between G and G on each strand, whereas Alu I binds at the recognition sequence 5' A-G-C-T 3' and cleaves these sequences between G and C on each strand. 5' C – C – G – T – A – G – C – T – A – T – C – A – G – C – T – G – G 3' 3' G – G – C – A – T – C – G – A – T – A – G – T – C – G – A – C – C 5'Q.29 (a)1 markIf Alu I is used to cut the given DNA strand, how many DNA fragments would be formed ? Write the sequence of each fragment formed with its polarity.
- Q.29 (b)1 markWhich one of the two restriction enzymes BamH I or Alu I will preferably be used on the same given DNA strand to make a recombinant DNA molecule and why ?
- Q.29 (c)2 marksAfter binding to the two strands of the double helix DNA, where specifically does the restriction enzyme act to cut the two strands of DNA ? Write the specific term used for the specific nucleotide sequences of DNA recognised by a restriction endonuclease.
OR
Q.29 (c) OR2 marksWrite the specific sequence of DNA segment recognised by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI.- Study the figures given below that depict the comparative age distribution of human populations in Sweden and Rwanda. (International Data Base 2003) and answer the questions that follow :Q.30 (a)2 marksWhat can be inferred from the very broad base of Rwanda's age pyramid ? Support your answer with the data provided in the figure.
- Q.30 (b)1 markSweden has an age distribution that is approximately of the same width near its base as at the apex. What does this indicate ?
- Q.30 (c)1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Sweden.
OR
Q.30 (c) OR1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Rwanda.
Section E
5 marks each
- Q.31 (a)5 marks(i) Explain any four devices that flowering plants have developed to encourage cross-pollination. (ii) Why do plants discourage self-pollination ? State any one reason.
OR
Q.31 (b)5 marksExplain the ovarian and uterine events taking place along with the role of pituitary and ovarian hormones, during menstrual cycle in a normal human female under the following phases : (i) Follicular phase/proliferative phase (ii) Luteal phase/secretory phase (iii) Menstrual phase- Q.32 (a)5 marks"The influence of both the alleles in a heterozygous state is clearly expressed in codominance." Explain with the help of inheritance of ABO blood group in humans.
OR
Q.32 (b)5 marks"A group of genes are regulated and expressed together as a unit in lac operon." (i) Explain the mechanism of switching 'on' of the structural genes of lac operon. (ii) "Regulation of 'lac operon' is referred to be negatively regulated." Justify giving a reason.- Q.33 (a)5 marks(i) Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium from the time it enters the human body till a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person. (ii) Mention the two events of Plasmodium life cycle that occur within the female Anopheles body.
OR
Q.33 (b)5 marks(i) Write two differences between malignant tumor and benign tumor. (ii) Explain any three diagnostic techniques for the detection of cancer.
Section A
1 mark each
- Q.11 markThe ploidy of the apomictic embryos developing from the integument cells and synergids respectively would be :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.21 markA DNA fragment has 2500 nucleotides, out of which 240 are Guanine. How many bases having double hydrogen bonds between them does this DNA fragment possess ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.31 markThe mechanism to produce seeds without fertilisation has evolved in the given family of the flowering plants :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.41 markLouis Pasteur dismissed the theory of spontaneous generation by his experiments using pre-sterilised flasks and :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.51 markAfter the 1850s in the post-industrialization era in England, the expected effect of natural selection on the number of white-winged moths as compared to the dark-winged moths was :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.61 markA Snapdragon plant bearing red colour flowers was crossed with a Snapdragon plant bearing white colour flowers. The progeny on selfing produced the progeny in the ratio of :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.71 markIn which of the following chromosomal disorders do individuals have short stature, underdeveloped feminine character and sterile ovaries ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.81 markWhich one of the following represents the correct annealing of primers to the DNA to be amplified in the PCR ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.91 markA patient is suffering from fever, chills, cough, headache and bluish finger nails and lips. These symptoms are of the disease :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.101 markIn an experiment, E. coli is grown in a medium containing . ( is the light isotope of Nitrogen) followed by growing it for six generations in a medium having heavy isotope of nitrogen (). After six generations, their DNA was extracted and subjected to CsCl density gradient centrifugation. Identify the correct density (Light/Hybrid/Heavy) and ratio of the bands of DNA in CsCl density gradient centrifugation.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.111 markFor the replication of the first recombinant DNA, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer used the DNA polymerase of :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.121 markThe population growth curve applicable for a population growing in nature with limited resources available to them will be :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.Q.131 markAssertion (A) : The zygote gives rise to heart-shaped embryo and subsequently proembryo in most angiosperms. Reason (R) : The zygote is present at the micropylar end of the embryo sac and develops into an embryo.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.141 markAssertion (A) : Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are subjected to splicing to remove the introns. Reason (R) : Primary transcripts contain both exons and introns and the introns are non-functional in eukaryotes.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.151 markAssertion (A) : The stirrer facilitates the even mixing of oxygen availability in a bioreactor. Reason (R) : Stirred-tank bioreactors generally have a flat base.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.161 markAssertion (A) : The chronic use of alcohol by a person leads to cirrhosis. Reason (R) : Alcohol addiction at times becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to the entire family of the addicted person.
Tap an option to check your answer.
Section B
2 marks each
- Q.17 (a)2 marksWrite important features of 'humus' formed during the decomposition cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem.
OR
Q.17 (b)2 marks(i) Graphically represent the relationship between species richness and area on a log-log scale for bats and fishes. (ii) Write the equation for the relationship as on a logarithmic scale.- Q.182 marksWhat is a vaccine ? Write the basis on which it acts when administered in the body.
- Q.192 marksState the procedure followed in the technique of amniocentesis. List any two advantages of this technique.
- Q.202 marksConsider the given data of a hypothetical small portion of mRNA that codes for a functional polypeptide chain and answer the questions that follow : mRNA 5' – UCAUUACCACGAUUCUUUAAAAGA – 3' (a) How many amino acids will be formed from the given codons, if substitution of 'U' by 'C' takes place at the codon ? Explain your answer. (b) Write the number of amino acids that would be in the polypeptide synthesised by a similar mRNA as above, where in the fourth codon instead of 'C' there is 'U'. Justify your answer.
- Q.212 marksWith reference to the set-ups (A, B and C) given below, of the electrophoretic separation of a mixture of DNA fragments of varied lengths, answer the questions that follow : (a) In which one of the two Set-ups, A or B, would you see the DNA fragments separated and why ? Justify your answer. (b) In Set-up C, which one of the two, I / II, are the bands of longer fragments of DNA ? Justify your answer.
Section C
3 marks each
- Q.223 marks(a) Draw a diagram of a human sperm. Label the following parts in it : (i) Which helps in the motility of the sperm (ii) Which helps in penetrating through the corona radiata and zona pellucida (iii) Which enters into the cytoplasm of the human egg (b) Mention how is polyspermy prevented during the course of fertilization in humans.
- Q.23 (a)3 marks(i) List two major reasons for using cow-dung in a biogas plant instead of using domestic sewage. (ii) Mention one use of the unspent slurry of the biogas plant.
OR
Q.23 (b)3 marksName the bioactive molecule and its microbial source generally used by physicians to treat the patients for : (i) Myocardial infarction (ii) High blood cholesterol level (iii) Organ transplantation- Q.243 marksThree crosses were carried out in pea plants with respect to flower colour violet/white (V/v) and flower position axial/terminal (A/a). Study in the table the crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c' where parental phenotypes and their progeny phenotypes are given.Find the genotypes of each of the parental pairs of crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c'.
Parental plants (Phenotypes) Progeny (Phenotypes) (a) Violet, axial white, axial 6/16 white, axial; 2/16 white, terminal; 6/16 violet, axial; 2/16 violet, axial (b) Violet, axial white, terminal 1/4 violet, axial; 1/4 violet, terminal; 1/4 white, axial; 1/4 white, terminal (c) Violet, axial violet, axial 3/4 violet, axial; 1/4 white, axial - Q.253 marks(a) Mention the advantages of 'ART'. (b) Explain the 'ICSI' and 'AI' methods of assisted reproductive technologies.
- Q.263 marks(a) Give the scientific name of the bacteria widely used in biotechnology to create a GM cotton crop resistant to bollworm attacks. (b) Explain how GM cotton crop is able to resist insect attacks.
- Q.273 marksDescribe the mutualistic relationship that exists between the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys and a bee species.
- Q.283 marksA population of snakes lived in a desert with brown sand. Study the drawings given below showing the change in the population from 'one' to 'two' over time and answer the question that follows. Brown snakes and Grey snakes are represented by alleles A/a (Dominant/recessive). (a) If the frequency of the recessive trait is 9% in population-one, work out the frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant snakes. (b) Name the mechanism of evolution that must have operated so that population-two evolved from population-one.
Section D
- Study the figures given below that depict the comparative age distribution of human populations in Sweden and Rwanda. (International Data Base 2003) and answer the questions that follow :Q.29 (a)2 marksWhat can be inferred from the very broad base of Rwanda's age pyramid ? Support your answer with the data provided in the figure.
- Q.29 (b)1 markSweden has an age distribution that is approximately of the same width near its base as at the apex. What does this indicate ?
- Q.29 (c)1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Sweden.
OR
Q.29 (c) OR1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Rwanda.- Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. In recombinant DNA technology, restriction enzymes are used as they recognize and cut DNA within a specific recognition sequence. BamH I is one such restriction enzyme which binds at the recognition sequence 5' G-G-A-T-C-C 3' and cleaves this sequence between G and G on each strand, whereas Alu I binds at the recognition sequence 5' A-G-C-T 3' and cleaves these sequences between G and C on each strand. 5' C – C – G – T – A – G – C – T – A – T – C – A – G – C – T – G – G 3' 3' G – G – C – A – T – C – G – A – T – A – G – T – C – G – A – C – C 5'Q.30 (a)1 markIf Alu I is used to cut the given DNA strand, how many DNA fragments would be formed ? Write the sequence of each fragment formed with its polarity.
- Q.30 (b)1 markWhich one of the two restriction enzymes BamH I or Alu I will preferably be used on the same given DNA strand to make a recombinant DNA molecule and why ?
- Q.30 (c)2 marksAfter binding to the two strands of the double helix DNA, where specifically does the restriction enzyme act to cut the two strands of DNA ? Write the specific term used for the specific nucleotide sequences of DNA recognised by a restriction endonuclease.
OR
Q.30 (c) OR2 marksWrite the specific sequence of DNA segment recognised by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI.
Section E
5 marks each
- Q.31 (a)5 marks(i) Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium from the time it enters the human body till a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person. (ii) Mention the two events of Plasmodium life cycle that occur within the female Anopheles body.
OR
Q.31 (b)5 marks(i) Write two differences between malignant tumor and benign tumor. (ii) Explain any three diagnostic techniques for the detection of cancer.- Q.32 (a)5 marks(i) Explain any four devices that flowering plants have developed to encourage cross-pollination. (ii) Why do plants discourage self-pollination ? State any one reason.
OR
Q.32 (b)5 marksExplain the ovarian and uterine events taking place along with the role of pituitary and ovarian hormones, during menstrual cycle in a normal human female under the following phases : (i) Follicular phase/proliferative phase (ii) Luteal phase/secretory phase (iii) Menstrual phase- Q.33 (a)5 marks"The influence of both the alleles in a heterozygous state is clearly expressed in codominance." Explain with the help of inheritance of ABO blood group in humans.
OR
Q.33 (b)5 marks"A group of genes are regulated and expressed together as a unit in lac operon." (i) Explain the mechanism of switching 'on' of the structural genes of lac operon. (ii) "Regulation of 'lac operon' is referred to be negatively regulated." Justify giving a reason.
Section A
1 mark each
- Q.11 markEmbryo formation without fertilization is observed in some species of :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.21 markThe origin of life according to the early Greek philosophers was transfer of unit of life from outer space to the different planets in the form of :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.31 markThe ploidy of apomictic embryos developing from the nucellus and antipodal cells respectively would be :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.41 markA DNA fragment has 3000 nucleotides, out of which 160 are Guanine. How many bases having double hydrogen bonds between them does this DNA fragment possess ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.51 markAfter the 1850s in the post-industrialisation era in England, the expected effect of natural selection on the number of white-winged moths as compared to the dark-winged moths was :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.61 markIn which of the following chromosomal disorders do the individuals have short stature, small head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.71 markA Snapdragon plant bearing pink colour flowers is crossed with a Snapdragon plant bearing white colour flowers. Their progeny will show :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.81 markA patient is suffering from the infection of the alveoli of lungs and is showing the symptoms of fever, chills, cough, headache and bluish coloured lips and finger nails. The patient was diagnosed to be suffering from the infection of :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.91 markThe linking of the antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector of Salmonella typhimurium by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer was made possible by the enzyme :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.101 markIn an experiment, E. coli is grown in a medium containing . ( is the light isotope of Nitrogen) followed by growing it for six generations in a medium having heavy isotope of nitrogen (). After six generations, their DNA was extracted and subjected to CsCl density gradient centrifugation. Identify the correct density (Light/Hybrid/Heavy) and ratio of the bands of DNA in CsCl density gradient centrifugation.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.111 markThe population growth curve applicable for a population of beetles growing in nature under unlimited resource conditions available to them will be :
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.121 markWhich one of the following represents the correct annealing of primers to the DNA to be amplified in the PCR ?
Tap an option to check your answer.
- For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.Q.131 markAssertion (A) : The zygote gives rise to heart-shaped embryo and subsequently proembryo in most angiosperms. Reason (R) : The zygote is present at the micropylar end of the embryo sac and develops into an embryo.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.141 markAssertion (A) : The stirrer facilitates the even mixing of oxygen availability in a bioreactor. Reason (R) : Stirred-tank bioreactors generally have a flat base.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.151 markAssertion (A) : Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are subjected to splicing to remove the introns. Reason (R) : Primary transcripts contain both exons and introns and the introns are non-functional in eukaryotes.
Tap an option to check your answer.
- Q.161 markAssertion (A) : The chronic use of alcohol by a person leads to cirrhosis. Reason (R) : Alcohol addiction at times becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to the entire family of the addicted person.
Tap an option to check your answer.
Section B
2 marks each
- Q.172 marks"Amniocentesis is a very useful and important technique, but due to some reason there is a statutory ban on amniocentesis." Justify this statement.
- Q.182 marksWith reference to the set-ups (A, B and C) given below, of the electrophoretic separation of a mixture of DNA fragments of varied lengths, answer the questions that follow : (a) In which one of the two Set-ups, A or B, would you see the DNA fragments separated and why ? Justify your answer. (b) In Set-up C, which one of the two, I / II, are the bands of longer fragments of DNA ? Justify your answer.
- Q.192 marksConsider the given data of a hypothetical small portion of mRNA that codes for a functional polypeptide chain and answer the questions that follow : mRNA 5' – UCAUUACCACGAUUCUUUAAAAGA – 3' (a) How many amino acids will be formed from the given codons, if substitution of 'U' by 'C' takes place at the codon ? Explain your answer. (b) Write the number of amino acids that would be in the polypeptide synthesised by a similar mRNA as above, where in the fourth codon instead of 'C' there is 'U'. Justify your answer.
- Q.20 (a)2 marksWrite important features of 'humus' formed during the decomposition cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem.
OR
Q.20 (b)2 marks(i) Graphically represent the relationship between species richness and area on a log-log scale for bats and fishes. (ii) Write the equation for the relationship as on a logarithmic scale.- Q.212 marksWhat is a vaccine ? Write the basis on which it acts when administered in the body.
Section C
3 marks each
- Q.223 marksDraw a T.S. of a mature anther of an angiosperm. Label its any three wall layers and mention their functions.
- Q.233 marksA population of snakes lived in a desert with brown sand. Study the drawings given below showing the change in the population from 'one' to 'two' over time and answer the question that follows. Brown snakes and Grey snakes are represented by alleles A/a (Dominant/recessive). (a) If the frequency of the recessive trait is 9% in population-one, work out the frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant snakes. (b) Name the mechanism of evolution that must have operated so that population-two evolved from population-one.
- Q.24 (a)3 marks(i) List two major reasons for using cow-dung in a biogas plant instead of using domestic sewage. (ii) Mention one use of the unspent slurry of the biogas plant.
OR
Q.24 (b)3 marksName the bioactive molecule and its microbial source generally used by physicians to treat the patients for : (i) Myocardial infarction (ii) High blood cholesterol level (iii) Organ transplantation- Q.253 marksDifferentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans on the basis of the following : (a) When the process is initiated. (b) Number of functional gametes produced per primary spermatocyte/oocyte. (c) Specific site at which meiosis II is completed.
- Q.263 marksThree crosses were carried out in pea plants with respect to flower colour violet/white (V/v) and flower position axial/terminal (A/a). Study in the table the crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c' where parental phenotypes and their progeny phenotypes are given.Find the genotypes of each of the parental pairs of crosses 'a', 'b' and 'c'.
Parental plants (Phenotypes) Progeny (Phenotypes) (a) Violet, axial white, axial 6/16 white, axial; 2/16 white, terminal; 6/16 violet, axial; 2/16 violet, axial (b) Violet, axial white, terminal 1/4 violet, axial; 1/4 violet, terminal; 1/4 white, axial; 1/4 white, terminal (c) Violet, axial violet, axial 3/4 violet, axial; 1/4 white, axial - Q.273 marksExplain any three roles of 'predation' in an ecosystem with the help of suitable examples.
- Q.283 marks(a) Give the scientific name of the bacteria widely used in biotechnology to create a GM cotton crop resistant to bollworm attacks. (b) Explain how GM cotton crop is able to resist insect attacks.
Section D
- Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. In recombinant DNA technology, restriction enzymes are used as they recognize and cut DNA within a specific recognition sequence. BamH I is one such restriction enzyme which binds at the recognition sequence 5' G-G-A-T-C-C 3' and cleaves this sequence between G and G on each strand, whereas Alu I binds at the recognition sequence 5' A-G-C-T 3' and cleaves these sequences between G and C on each strand. 5' C – C – G – T – A – G – C – T – A – T – C – A – G – C – T – G – G 3' 3' G – G – C – A – T – C – G – A – T – A – G – T – C – G – A – C – C 5'Q.29 (a)1 markIf Alu I is used to cut the given DNA strand, how many DNA fragments would be formed ? Write the sequence of each fragment formed with its polarity.
- Q.29 (b)1 markWhich one of the two restriction enzymes BamH I or Alu I will preferably be used on the same given DNA strand to make a recombinant DNA molecule and why ?
- Q.29 (c)2 marksAfter binding to the two strands of the double helix DNA, where specifically does the restriction enzyme act to cut the two strands of DNA ? Write the specific term used for the specific nucleotide sequences of DNA recognised by a restriction endonuclease.
OR
Q.29 (c) OR2 marksWrite the specific sequence of DNA segment recognised by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI.- Study the figures given below that depict the comparative age distribution of human populations in Sweden and Rwanda. (International Data Base 2003) and answer the questions that follow :Q.30 (a)2 marksWhat can be inferred from the very broad base of Rwanda's age pyramid ? Support your answer with the data provided in the figure.
- Q.30 (b)1 markSweden has an age distribution that is approximately of the same width near its base as at the apex. What does this indicate ?
- Q.30 (c)1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Sweden.
OR
Q.30 (c) OR1 markName the type of age pyramid shown above for Rwanda.
Section E
5 marks each
- Q.31 (a)5 marks"The influence of both the alleles in a heterozygous state is clearly expressed in codominance." Explain with the help of inheritance of ABO blood group in humans.
OR
Q.31 (b)5 marks"A group of genes are regulated and expressed together as a unit in lac operon." (i) Explain the mechanism of switching 'on' of the structural genes of lac operon. (ii) "Regulation of 'lac operon' is referred to be negatively regulated." Justify giving a reason.- Q.32 (a)5 marks(i) Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium from the time it enters the human body till a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person. (ii) Mention the two events of Plasmodium life cycle that occur within the female Anopheles body.
OR
Q.32 (b)5 marks(i) Write two differences between malignant tumor and benign tumor. (ii) Explain any three diagnostic techniques for the detection of cancer.- Q.33 (a)5 marks(i) Explain any four devices that flowering plants have developed to encourage cross-pollination. (ii) Why do plants discourage self-pollination ? State any one reason.
OR
Q.33 (b)5 marksExplain the ovarian and uterine events taking place along with the role of pituitary and ovarian hormones, during menstrual cycle in a normal human female under the following phases : (i) Follicular phase/proliferative phase (ii) Luteal phase/secretory phase (iii) Menstrual phase