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JEE Mains Physics · Electromagnetic Waves

E and B Fields of a Plane Wave

In a plane wave E and B are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of travel, oscillate in phase with E = cB, and B = (k × E)/ω fixes which way B points.

Why this matters

Thirty-four PYQs, one of them asking for a number, and six from 2026. Fourteen give one field as a full wave equation and ask for the other. Sixteen give E or B at one point and instant, or ask which components and which direction of travel go together. Four ask for the electric and magnetic forces on a moving charge. All of them use the same two facts: E = cB, and E × B points along the direction of travel.

Concept 1 of 3: Writing the magnetic field of a wave from its electric field

E and B rise and fall together, at right angles to each other and to the direction of travel. So once one field is known, the other has the same phase, an amplitude divided (or multiplied) by c, and a direction fixed by a cross product. Only the direction needs thought.

Definition

  • The wave travels along E⃗×B⃗\vec E \times \vec B. Equivalently B^=n^×E^\hat B = \hat n \times \hat E and E^=B^×n^\hat E = \hat B \times \hat n, where n^\hat n is the unit vector along the direction of travel.
  • Vector form: B⃗=k⃗×E⃗ω\vec B = \dfrac{\vec k \times \vec E}{\omega}. Its size is B0=kE0/ω=E0/cB_0 = kE_0/\omega = E_0/c in vacuum.
  • Same phase: B carries exactly the same argument as E. A sine stays a sine and kx−ωtkx - \omega t stays kx−ωtkx - \omega t.
  • Direction of travel from the phase: kx−ωtkx - \omega t, ωt−kx\omega t - kx and ω(t−x/c)\omega(t - x/c) all travel along +x; kx+ωtkx + \omega t travels along −x.
  • Oblique travel: a phase in ax+byax + by travels along (ai^+bj^)/a2+b2(a\hat i + b\hat j)/\sqrt{a^{2} + b^{2}}. The size of the vector that multiplies E is part of the amplitude.
  • Cross products: i^×j^=k^\hat i \times \hat j = \hat k, j^×k^=i^\hat j \times \hat k = \hat i, k^×i^=j^\hat k \times \hat i = \hat j; reversing the order changes the sign.

One field from the other

B⃗=k⃗×E⃗ω,B0=E0c,n^=E^×B^\vec B = \frac{\vec k \times \vec E}{\omega}, \qquad B_0 = \frac{E_0}{c}, \qquad \hat n = \hat E \times \hat B

Worked example

A wave in vacuum has E⃗=45sin⁡(2×106z−6×1014t) i^\vec E = 45\sin(2 \times 10^{6}z - 6 \times 10^{14}t)\,\hat i V/m. Write its magnetic field. (c=3×108c = 3 \times 10^{8} m/s)
Practice this conceptself-check · 4 quick reps

The same idea in a real exam question:

JEE Mains · 2026 · 21 Jan 2026 Shift 1 · Q10Moderate

Example 1 · Electromagnetic Waves · E and B Fields of a Plane Wave

The electric field a plane electromagnetic wave is given by : Ey=69sin⁡[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t]V/mE_{y}= 69\sin\left\lbrack 0.6 \times10^{3}x - 1.8 \times10^{11}t \right\rbrack V/m. The expression for magnetic field associated with this electromagnetic wave is ____\_\_\_\_ T.

The order of the cross product matters

The magnetic field is along k × E, not E × k. Reversing the order gives the right axis with the wrong sign, and the options usually offer both.

B keeps the phase of E

The two fields oscillate together, so B has the same argument as E. An option that changes kx − ωt to kx + ωt describes a wave going the other way.

Divide by c, do not multiply

In SI units B₀ = E₀/c is tiny, of order 10⁻⁷ T for fields of tens of volts per metre. An option that gives B the same number as E has skipped the division.

Travel along −x flips a sign

When the phase is kx + ωt, put −î in the cross product. Using +î out of habit reverses the direction of the field you are finding.

Concept 2 of 3: Electric and magnetic fields at one point of a wave

At one point and one instant, E and B are two perpendicular arrows whose sizes are in the ratio c, arranged so that E × B points along the direction of travel. Nothing else about the wave matters for this: the frequency in the question is a distractor.

Definition

  • At every point and instant ∣B⃗∣=∣E⃗∣/c|\vec B| = |\vec E|/c, not only for the amplitudes.
  • With n^\hat n along the direction of travel: B^=n^×E^\hat B = \hat n \times \hat E, E^=B^×n^\hat E = \hat B \times \hat n, and n^\hat n is E^×B^\hat E \times \hat B.
  • E and B lie along the two axes other than the travel axis, one each. Neither field is ever along the direction of travel.
  • The amplitudes satisfy kE0=ωB0kE_0 = \omega B_0, which is E0=cB0E_0 = cB_0 in vacuum.
  • With the magnetic intensity H=B/μ0H = B/\mu_0: E0/H0=μ0/ε0≈377 ΩE_0/H_0 = \sqrt{\mu_0/\varepsilon_0} \approx 377\ \Omega.
  • E, B and the direction of travel are mutually perpendicular; the energy is shared equally between the two fields; and the wave carries no charge, so electric and magnetic fields do not deflect it.

Fields at a point

∣B⃗∣=∣E⃗∣c,B^=n^×E^,E0H0=μ0ε0≈377 Ω|\vec B| = \frac{|\vec E|}{c}, \qquad \hat B = \hat n \times \hat E, \qquad \frac{E_0}{H_0} = \sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}} \approx 377\ \Omega

Worked example

A 50 MHz wave travels along +z in vacuum. At one point and instant, E⃗=7.5 i^\vec E = 7.5\,\hat i V/m. Find B⃗\vec B there. (c=3×108c = 3 \times 10^{8} m/s)
Practice this conceptself-check · 4 quick reps

The same idea in a real exam question:

JEE Mains · 2023 · 11 April 2023 · Q93Moderate

Example 2 · Electromagnetic Waves · E and B Fields of a Plane Wave

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHzMHz propagates in free space along xx-direction. At a particular space and time, E→=6.6j^V/m\overrightarrow{E}= 6.6\widehat{j}V/m. What is B→\overrightarrow{B} at this point?

The frequency is a distractor

At a point and an instant, B = E/c. The frequency given in the question changes nothing in this calculation.

B over E is 1/c, not c

The magnetic amplitude is the electric amplitude divided by c. A statement that B₀/E₀ equals the speed of light has the ratio upside down.

E₀/B₀ is c, but E₀/H₀ is 377 Ω

The factor √(μ₀/ε₀) links E with the magnetic intensity H = B/μ₀, not with B. Writing E₀ = √(μ₀/ε₀)B₀ mixes the two.

Neither field lies along the travel direction

A wave along y can have E and B only along x and z, one each. Any pair that puts a field along y, or both fields on the same axis, is not a plane electromagnetic wave.

Concept 3 of 3: Electric and magnetic forces on a charge in a wave

A charge in the wave feels qE from the electric field and qvB from the magnetic field. Since B is E/c, the magnetic force is only v/c of the electric force. It matters only when the charge moves fast.

Definition

  • Electric force Fe=qEF_e = qE; magnetic force Fm=qvBsin⁡θF_m = qvB\sin\theta.
  • A charge moving along E moves at right angles to B, so Fm=qvB=qvE/cF_m = qvB = qvE/c.
  • The ratio is Fe/Fm=c/vF_e/F_m = c/v, which is always more than 1.
  • The largest forces use the amplitudes: Fe,max⁡=qE0F_{e,\max} = qE_0 and Fm,max⁡=qvB0=qvE0/cF_{m,\max} = qvB_0 = qvE_0/c.
  • At a given point the total force is the Lorentz force F⃗=q(E⃗+v⃗×B⃗)\vec F = q(\vec E + \vec v \times \vec B). A charge at rest feels no magnetic force.

Forces on a moving charge

Fe=qE0,Fm=qvB0=qvE0c,FeFm=cvF_e = qE_0, \qquad F_m = qvB_0 = \frac{qvE_0}{c}, \qquad \frac{F_e}{F_m} = \frac{c}{v}

Worked example

A wave in vacuum has Ez=600sin⁡ω(t−y/c)E_z = 600\sin\omega(t - y/c) V/m. A proton moves along z at 6×1066 \times 10^{6} m/s. Find the largest electric force, the largest magnetic force and their ratio. (e=1.6×10−19e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C, c=3×108c = 3 \times 10^{8} m/s)
Practice this conceptself-check · 4 quick reps

The same idea in a real exam question:

JEE Mains · 2022 · 27 July 2022 · Q15Moderate

Example 3 · Electromagnetic Waves · E and B Fields of a Plane Wave

A beam of light travelling along XX-axis is described by the electric field Ey=900sin⁡ω(t−x/c)E_{y}= 900\sin\omega(t - x/c). The ratio of electric force to magnetic force on a charge qq moving along YY-axis with a speed of 3×107 ms−13 \times10^{7}{\text{ }ms}^{- 1} will be: [Given speed of light =3×108 ms−1= 3 \times10^{8}{\text{ }ms}^{- 1} ]

Use B₀ = E₀/c in the magnetic force

The magnetic force is qvB₀, and B₀ is the electric amplitude divided by c. Putting E₀ in place of B₀ makes the magnetic force c times too large.

The electric force is the larger one

The ratio of electric to magnetic force is c/v. Inverting it gives a ratio less than 1, which would mean the magnetic force wins; it never does for a charge slower than light.

Summary — formulas & gotchas at a glance

A revision cheat-sheet for the formulas and gotchas above. Click any concept name to jump back to its full explanation.

Formulas (3)

  • Writing the magnetic field of a wave from its electric field

    One field from the other

    B⃗=k⃗×E⃗ω,B0=E0c,n^=E^×B^\vec B = \frac{\vec k \times \vec E}{\omega}, \qquad B_0 = \frac{E_0}{c}, \qquad \hat n = \hat E \times \hat B
  • Electric and magnetic fields at one point of a wave

    Fields at a point

    ∣B⃗∣=∣E⃗∣c,B^=n^×E^,E0H0=μ0ε0≈377 Ω|\vec B| = \frac{|\vec E|}{c}, \qquad \hat B = \hat n \times \hat E, \qquad \frac{E_0}{H_0} = \sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}} \approx 377\ \Omega
  • Electric and magnetic forces on a charge in a wave

    Forces on a moving charge

    Fe=qE0,Fm=qvB0=qvE0c,FeFm=cvF_e = qE_0, \qquad F_m = qvB_0 = \frac{qvE_0}{c}, \qquad \frac{F_e}{F_m} = \frac{c}{v}

Watch out for (10)

Test yourself on Electromagnetic Waves

20 past JEE Mains questions from this chapter, timed at 48 minutes and marked the way the exam marks it. You see your score and every answer the moment you finish. Free to start.